Answer:
The correct option is b. Spending variance.
Explanation:
Spending variance can be described as the difference between the actual cost and budgeted cost at the actual activity level.
Since cost of goods sold (COGS) is the direct costs incurred to produce the goods that is sold by a firm, it therefore implies that the amount of variance in cost of goods sold can be determined by comparing the actual results and the flexible budget at the actual activity level or actual units.
Based on the explanation above, the correct option is b. Spending variance. That is, Spending variance is an unfavorable variance of $5,000 in cost of goods sold is determined by comparing the actual results (10,000 units) and the flexible budget (10,000 units).
What was the economy like before the corona virus??
Please help!!
5-8 lines
Answer:
BEFORE the virus, the economy was running (not perfectly) but smoothly. You could go to school without the worry of a death sentence. Marriages were more common before the virus. Concerts were available. You could go out and do things. Bears didn't have to leave the mountains for food. Businesses were running easier.
Explanation:
I hope this helps.
Considering the needs of a global audience is essential to success in the hospitality and tourism industry?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
In simple words, the hospitality and tourism industry refers to the activities related to accommodation, restaurant and tourism etc. In such industries the main focus of the companies is the comfort and joy of their clients. This becomes difficult to implement as every individual have different needs and circumstances. Thus, the planning of activities should be made in such a way that it suited the global audience.
Which of the following best explains how the rise of machinery created an unfriendly relationship between industrialists and their employees?
A. The industrialist earned his income from the work of others.
B. There was a lack of unions.
C. The employees were underpaid.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
In as much as these are the only options given, then there has to be an answer there. Even though I fancy there being another answer.
But I'd say, the closest to the reason from the aforelisted is that the employees were underpaid. Since the advent of machineries, truth is that there wasn't going to be need for employees. This is because machines tend to have a much better output, better efficiency and won't need to be paid monthly in wages.
Since there isn't need for employees again, the industrialist tend to underpay the employees because they don't see their useful in the first instance
The rise of the use of machine is on the increase. The best explanation as to how the rise of machinery created an unfriendly relationship between industrialists and their employees is the employees were underpaid.
The industrialists did treat their workers bad. They make sure to keep wages as low as ever. Their attitude towards their employee was like if employee did not like the pay, the long hours and other working conditions he could quit and go to other places.
They were super-rich, living in great homes, living life lavishly abut their employees were paid little sum as if they do not have any choice.
Learn more about Industrialist from
https://brainly.com/question/10230728
You use ________________ to communicate a risk and the resulting impact.A. risk management plansB. CBAsC. risk statementsD. POAMs
Answer:A
Explanation: