Answer:
i'm pretty sure it's earthquake.
Explanation:
Answer:
flooding because of water erosion.
Hope this helps!!!Which letter marks the zone of inhibition?
Answer:
A. B
Explanation:
"B" as labelled in the above is the zone of inhibition.
The Zone of Inhibition is actually a test which is used to assess antimicrobial activities of a material or solution in relation to an micro-organism as a target. It is also known as Kirby-Bauer Test. It measures the antibiotic resistance and also used to inhibit microbial growth.
At the Point B, microbes can not grow in there; they are inhibited.
In the test, if bacterial strain or any other strain is susceptible to the antimicrobial agent, a zone of inhibition appears. If it shows resistance to that agent, then no zone is evidential.
Circle the word that best completes the statement about cell theory.
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of organelles / cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living dead cells.
111. The atom cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology / chemistry.
MAIN IDEA: Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and most internal structures of
eukaryotic cells.
Question reformatted:
Circle the word that best completes the statement about cell theory.
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of organelles / cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living / dead cells.
iii. The atom / cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology / chemistry
Answer:
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living cells.
iii. The cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology
Explanation:
Cell theory is one of the central theories of biology and is universally accepted. It states that all organisms are cellular - that is they are made of cells. It also states that all living things come from other living cells (not spontaneously, or from dead cells). The cell is the most basic unit of life, organisms can be unicellular, but no living thing is 'less' than that.
How does a cell deal with the buildup of hydrogen peroxide?
Answer:
They actually have a protein that breaks it down into harmless components: water and oxygen. Enzymes are proteins that speed up the rate of reactions, and there is a particular enzyme that can help break down hydrogen peroxide.
Which evidence from the Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material
Answer:
The evidence from the Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not was as result of some analysis in which it was discovered that Protein contains sulfur and DNA does not.
This was what led to the use of radioactive phosphorus and radioactive sulfur in self-identification.
Identify your favorite meal and explain where each of the four molecules of life can be found.
Answer:
Spaghetti. Wheat is in the noodles and is found it a field. Tomatoes is the sauce and is grown at a farm. Cows or chicken is used for the meatballs and the are on a farm. And these all have mass, atoms, and nutrients to help your body grow and be strong.
Explanation:
There are many reasons why all humans do not perceive sounds similarly in our environment, including adaptation, hearing loss and/or deafness.
For 2A-2D, first determine whether the scenario is an example of sensory adaptation, conduction deafness, sensorineural deafness, and/or central deafness.
Second, for the scenarios that are examples of deafness, explain briefly how the scenario leads to deafness (i.e., how does the scenario alter normal auditory processing). If you have selected sensory adaptation as an answer, explain briefly why the scenario does not fall under the categorization of deafness. Use your own words to briefly explain - simply listing definitions is not sufficient. (2.5 points each for matching, 5 points each for correct justification)
2A. Listening to excessive loud noises everyday over years that causes loss of stereocilia
2B. Hearing construction outside when it first begins, but no longer noticing the sound minutes later
2C. Difficulty understanding speech, but no damage to ears or ability to understand nonverbal sounds
2D. A hole in the tympanic membrane caused by an ear infection
Answer: 2A Sensorineural deafness
2B Sensory adaptation
2C Central deafness
2D Conductive deafness
Explanation: The human ear is divided into 3 parts:
Outer Ear: auricle, ear canal and tympanic membrane;Middle Ear: eardrum, tympanic cavity and ossicles (malleus, incus and stapes);Inner Ear: oval window, semicircular ducts (attached to cochlea and nerves), cochlea and auditory tube;The Sensorineural deafness is a type of deafness caused by a damage in the inner ear, either the cochlea or the auditory nerve. It can happen because of medicine toxicity, exposure to noise along the years etc.
So, from the scenarios above, 2A is consistent with sensorineural deafness since stereocilia are hair cells of inner ear.
Sensory adaptation is a phenomenom that happens when an individual's sensory receptors is exposed to a stimuli for a prolonged period of time. For example, the situation described in 2B. It is not considered deafness because it is not caused by a damage in any part of the ear.
Central deafness is a very rare case of deafness. The damage in this type of deafness is in the brain and not in any of the 3 parts of the ear. That's why the scenario in 2C is the example of this.
Conductive deafness is the second most common type of ear problem and it occurs in the outer ear. One of the causes is blockage in the ear canal by the ear wax, external bodies, osteomas (bone growth) or otitis (oute ear infection). An example of this type of deafness is scenario 2D.
If the pride is taken over by a new individual what happens to the females? Males? Cubs?
Answer: When a new male coalition first takes over a pride, the cubs represent a major impediment to their reproduction. Mothers of surviving cubs will not mate again until their offspring are at least 18 months of age but will mate within days if their cubs are lost.
Explanation:
Which of the following lists the levels of body organization from least complex to most complex?
Answer:The highest level of organization for living things is the biosphere; it encompasses all other levels. The biological levels of organization of living things arranged from the simplest to most complex are: organelle, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystem, and biosphere.
Explanation:
Giving brainliest:)
In which phases is chromatin condensed?
Answer:
In stage 2
Explanation:
During interphase (1), chromatin is in its least condensed state and appears loosely distributed throughout the nucleus. Chromatin condensation begins during prophase (2) and chromosomes become visible. Chromosomes remain condensed throughout the various stages of mitosis (2-5).
4. Which of the following statements BEST explains why you can hear noises
long distances at night?
A. There are fewer other noises at night.
B. Water conducts sound better at night.
C. Sound bounces off water better at night.
D. Sound waves are bent towards the cool air.
i guess its answer is option D
The part of the cell that is like your brain and gives instructions to the cell is
A.nucleus
B.protoplasm
C.membrane
D.fat cells
Help please
amino acid structure: the only part of the amino acid structure that varies between the amino acids and makes each type unique is
Answer:
The side groups are what make each amino acid different from the others. Of the 20 side groups used to make proteins, there are two main groups: polar and non-polar. These names refer to the way the side groups, sometimes called "R" groups, interact with the environment.
Explanation:
What is the highest possible temperature?
4. The top part A of the flask-shaped reproductive organ X in the flower of a plant secretes a surgery substance
into its lower part B which goes towards the bottom part of the flask-shaped organ. When a tiny grain D
coming from the top part E of another reproductive organ Y in the flower falls on part A, it grows a long
tube F through the organ X in response to the sugary substance and reaches the bottom part C of flask-
shaped organ to carry out fertilisation.
(a) What is (i) organ X, and (ii) organ Y, inside the flower ?
(b) Name parts (1) A (ii) B, and (iii) C, of flask-shaped organ.
(c) Name (i) grain D, and (ii) part E of organ Y.
(d) Name the tube F.
(e) What is the phenomenon of growing a long tube in response to a sugary substance in the process of
fertilisation in a flower known as ?
Answer:
X- pistil
Y- stamen
A-stigma
B-style
C-ovary
D- pollen grain
E- anther
F- pollen tube
What is the structure shown in the figure?
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Answer:
2nd to last one
Explanation:
Answer:
It is a protein.
Explanation:
It is an amino acid structure, which make up proteins.
I will mark brainlisest just please HELPPPPPPP
How quickly must non-frozen ready to eat foods be consumed
Match each terms with their definitions
what are catabolic reactions
Answer:
which complex molecules are broken down to simpler components, are classified as catabolic reactions. Taken as a group of reactions within a cell or even an organism, they can be referred to as the cell's or organism's anabolism or catabolism.
Explanation:
Which answer best explains how most scientists think that planets form? A. Large chunks of matter break off a star that collides with another star; these chunks then become planets orbiting the star. B. Large chunks of matter break off a planet that collides with a smaller body; these chunks gradually clump together to become a new planet. C. A rotating cloud of space dust and gases begins to flatten and condense, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets. D. A rotating cloud of space dust and gases begins to condense, forming a protoplanet; if the protoplanet is massive enough, its gravity will attract nearby matter until the protoplanet becomes large and round enough to be considered a planet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Thats what the teacher told me
The scientists believe that planets form when a rotating cloud of space dust and gases flattens and condenses, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets, as described in Option C, also known as the "nebular hypothesis."
What is the nebular hypothesis?The nebular hypothesis is the most widely accepted scientific theory for the planetary systems, such that the solar system and, as per this theory, a cloud of gas and dust, called a nebula, collapse due to gravitational forces; the nebula contracts, and it rotates faster, flattening into a disk, which eventually cools and condenses, forming a protoplanetary disk.
Hence, the scientists believe that planets form when a rotating cloud of space dust and gases flattens and condenses, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets, as described in Option C, also known as the "nebular hypothesis."
Learn more about the nebular hypothesis here.
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what satellites are used to study expanses of the oceans surface
Answer:
The Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellite-16 (GOES-16) is the first of NOAA's next generation of geostationary weather satellites. Among the many missions of this satellite, it will collect ocean and climate data.
Explanation:
Using satellites, NOAA researchers closely study the ocean. Information gathered by satellites can tell us about ocean bathymetry, sea surface temperature, ocean color, coral reefs, and sea and lake ice. Scientists also use data collection systems on satellites to relay signals from transmitters on the ground to researchers in the field—used in applications such as measuring tidal heights and the migration of whales. Transmitters on satellites also relay position information from emergency beacons to help save lives when people are in distress on boats, airplanes, or in remote areas.
Answer:
A b c d?
Explanation:
1. What groups listed below have true cell walls?
A. algae
B. mycoplasmas
C. Gram-positive bacteria
D. fungi
E. protozoans
Answer:
D. Fungi
Explanation:
The fungal cell walls are made of complex & flexible structure that is made of glycoproteins, pigments chitin and α- and β- linked glucans
Justify your answer.Your cousin tells you that trees have leaves to protect the tree from sun damage, just like a natural umbrella. Do you agree? Justify your answer.
Answer:
no
Explanation:
trees need sunlight to grow the leaves that is on the tree
Both strands of the DNA double helix contain nitrogenous bases held together by hydrogen bonds. In DNA, the sequence of nitrogenous bases varies widely. What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases?
A. They determine the amino acids in the proteins synthesized.
B. They prevent mutations from occurring in the process of DNA replication
C. They help complete the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules.
D. The amount of adenine and cytosine determines the length of the gene on a DNA molecule.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Essentially, in the process of protein synthesis, there is first transcription where mRNA is synthesized off of a DNA strand with complementary nitrogenous bases. After processing occurs (in basic terms the mRNA is literally processed) and the mRNA strand leaves the nucleus, it attaches to a large and small ribosomal subunit (a ribosome) where translation occurs. The gist of it is when the mRNA strand is being read by the ribosome. tRNA will come over and bind temporarily bringing with it a specific amino acid, starting the formation of the polypeptide/amino acid chain. Nitrogenous bases play into this as the sequence of the nitrogenous bases is what determines what tRNA will bind onto it which determines which amino acid is brought. More specifically, this deals with the codons of the mRNA and the corresponding anticodons with the tRNA, which is a bit of a more specific topic.
The nitrogenous bases help complete the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules. The correct option is C.
What is DNA?DNA, also renowned as deoxyribonucleic acid, is a complex molecule that includes all of the information required to construct and retain a lifeform.
DNA is found in the cells of all living things. In real sense, as in almost every cell in a multicellular organism contains the entirety of the organism's DNA.
DNA is composed of chemical key components known as nucleotides. These building blocks are composed of three components: a phosphate group, a sugar group, and one of four different types of nitrogen bases.
Nucleotides are linked together in chains, with the phosphate and sugar groups alternating.
Thus, the correct option is C.
For more details regarding DNA, visit:
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I NEED HELP ASAP Sensors on a spider's legs feel the vibrations of a trapped insect and relay the information to the spider's brain through nerve electrical signals. For nerve cells to maintain these electrical potentials, sodium must be removed from the cell and potassium must be moved into the cell. Describe why this process is a form of active transport and what is required for active transport to occur?
Answer:
Please find the explanation below
- Energy (ATP) is needed for active transport to occur
Explanation:
According to this question, sensor's on a spider's legs relay information via nerve electrical signals to the brain when the vibrations of a trapped insect is felt. However, for nerve cells to maintain this electric potential, ACTIVE TRANSPORT must be carried out by removing sodium from the cell and potassium must be moved into the cell.
This is a form of ACTIVE TRANSPORT because pottasium ions are moved into the cell against concentration gradient i.e. from a region where it is in low concentration to where it is in high concentration. This active transport process is usually accompanied by the use of energy in form of ATP.
environmental science aim to solve problems such as the extinction of a specific animal or plant species and deal with important issues such as
Answer:
Explanation:
1. The increase in the reproductive success of a species will have the greatest impact on
the-
Answer:
The increase in the reproductive success of a species will have the greatest impact on the prey of the animal.
Explanation:
The prey's population will decrease because there are more animals needing it to survive.
Why are stem cells important to multicellular organisms?
Answer:The fabulous ability of an embryo to diversify and of certain adult tissues to regenerate throughout life is a direct result of stem cells, nature's gift to multicellular organisms.
Explanation:
how do birds the ant seen here reproduce