what is the slope of the line?

Answer:

2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:your mom

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\huge \bf༆ Answer ༄[/tex]

Any value multiplied by Zero gives Zero, therefore ~

Answer:

The prime factorization of 110 is: 2 x 5 x 11.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. x/3-2=6

x-6=18

x=18+6

x=24

2. x/5+1=5

x+5=25

x=25-5

x=20

Answer:

x = 24 , x = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)

[tex]\frac{x}{3}[/tex] - 2 = 6 ( add 2 to both sides )

[tex]\frac{x}{3}[/tex] = 8 ( multiply both sides by 3 to clear the fraction )

x = 24

(b)

[tex]\frac{x}{5}[/tex] + 1 = 5 ( subtract 1 from both sides )

[tex]\frac{x}{5}[/tex] = 4 ( multiply both sides by 5 to clear the fraction )

x = 20

Answer:

x≤30

Step-by-step explanation:

he can spend no more than $30 a week

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:2508

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

84mm

Step-by-step explanation:

square = LxW = 6x6 =36

triangle = bxh/2 = 6x8/2 =24

add together 24x2+36=84

2000-200 = 1800

1800-180 = 1620

1620 - 162 = 1458

1458- 148.8 = 1309

1309 - 130.9 = 1178

1178- 117.8 = 1060.2

1060 - 106 = 954

= 7 years

The value of the car is $956.5938 after 7 years and this can be determined by using arithmetic operations.

Given :

The following steps can be used in order to determine the total number of years will the computer have a value of less than $1,000:

Step 1 - The 10% of $2000 is $200. So, the value of the car after 1 year is $1800.

Step 2 - The 10% of $1800 is $180. So, the value of the car after 2 years is $1620.

Step 3 - The 10% of $1620 is $162. So, the value of the car after 3 years is $1458.

Step 4 - The 10% of $1458 is $145.8. So, the value of the car after 4 years is $1312.2.

Step 5 - The 10% of $1312.2 is $131.22. So, the value of the car after 5 years is $1180.98.

Step 6 - The 10% of $1180.98 is $118.098. So, the value of the car after 6 years is $1062.882.

Step 7 - The 10% of $1062.882 is $106.2882. So, the value of the car after 7 years is $956.5938.

Therefore, the correct option is C).

For more information, refer to the link given below:

https://brainly.com/question/25834626

Answer:

-45

Step-by-step explanation:

I think one way you could do it is:

1. –3(–5) = 15

2. (–1)(3)​ = -3

3. (15) (-3) = -45

I used a calculator pls let me know if im incorrect

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

15x30 = 450

Answer:

She purchased 30 shirts.

Step-by-step explanation:

She paid only $400 Dollars, because she got a discount of $50.

So the total before getting the discount was $450.

If you divide $450 by $15 (the price for 1 shirt) you come up with 30.

450/15 = 30

Answer:

any line can pass through the point (2,2) so there needs to be a second point

Step-by-step explanation:

The approximate value of q in the equation is [tex]0.774[/tex]

The equation is given as:

[tex]q\log_2(6) = 2[/tex]

Divide both sides of the equation by [tex]\log_2(6)[/tex].

So, we have:

[tex]q= \frac{2}{\log_2(6) }[/tex]

Determine log(6) base 2

[tex]q= \frac{2}{2.585}[/tex]

Divide 2 by 2.585

[tex]q= 0.774[/tex]

Hence, the approximate value of q in the equation is [tex]0.774[/tex]

Read more about logarithmic equations at:

https://brainly.com/question/11897620

The sum of the square of the constants is 3/4

Given the equation [tex]\frac{1}{a+1} +\frac{1}{b+1} +\frac{1}{c+1} =2[/tex]

The partial form of the equation is given as:

Solve for the constant "a"

[tex]\frac{1}{a +1} = 2\\a+1 = \frac{1}{2} \\a = \frac{1}{2} - 1\\a =-\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Hence [tex]a=b=c=-\frac{1}{2} \\[/tex]

Taking the square of the constant, we will have:

[tex]a^2 + b^2 + c^2 =(-1/2)^2 +(-1/2)^2+(-1/2)^2\\a^2 + b^2 + c^2 =1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4\\a^2 + b^2 + c^2 =3/4[/tex]

Hence the sum of the square of the constants is 3/4

Learn more on partial fraction here: https://brainly.com/question/24594390

Answer -the sum of the square of the consonants is 3/4

Answer:

The third option, 1/2..

Answer:

okkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkk

[tex]▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪  {\huge\mathfrak{Answer}}▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪[/tex]

Sum of angles of a pentagon is ~ 540°

Therefore,

Value of x = 95°

Answer:

X=7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Conclusion:

Therefore

Hoped this helped.

[tex]GeniusUser[/tex]

I think its the third one but im not completly sure

Answer:

-t-5>-1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Just ask.

Hope this helps! :)

- BRAINLIEST answerer

Answer: yes !!

Step-by-step explanation:

first we have to simplify

25:5 = 5:1

10:2 = 5:1

yes, they are

When two ratios are in proportion the ratios are said to be equivalent.

The ratios 25:5 and 10:2 are equivalent because they are in proportion.

It is the comparison of two quantities of the same units that indicates how much of one quantity is present in the other quantity.

We have,

25:5 and 10:2

The ratio must be in proportion to be equivalent.

25:5 = 25/5 = 5 / 1

10:2 = 10/2 = 5/1

25:5 = 10:2

25/5 = 10/2

(5x5) / 5 = (5x2) / 2

5/1 = 5/1

We see that the ratio is equivalent.

Thus,

The ratios 25:5 and 10:2 are equivalent because they are in proportion.

Learn more about ratios here:

https://brainly.com/question/2462048

#SPJ2

Answer:

5:36

Step-by-step explanation:

12 inches = 1 foot, so 6 feet = 72 inches

10:72, reduces to 5:36

The value of given expression when x=-4 and y=4 is 1250.

The expression is missing in the question which is [tex]\dfrac{x^6-x}{4y}[/tex].

We have to solve it for x= -4 and y = 4.

Now putting the value of x and y we get,

[tex]\dfrac{x^6-x}{4y}=\dfrac{(-4)^6-(-4)}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{x^6-x}{4y}=\dfrac{4096+4}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{x^6-x}{4y}=1250[/tex]

Hence the value of given expression when x=-4 and y=4 is 1250.

For more details follow the link:

https://brainly.com/question/11897796

Answer: B Stan has $42 and Cory has $108.

Step-by-step explanation:

The awnser is Stan has $42 and Cory has $108 and $108 + $42 = $150.

                            CAN YOU PLEASE MARK ME BRAINLY.

Answer:

Divide the no. by three

Step-by-step explanation:

153÷3 = 51

so, 51+51+51 = 153

Answer:

an odd number can be expressed as 2n+1 (2n would be even, add 1 = odd)

first number = 2n+1

second number = 2n+3 -> skip + 2 because it would make it even

third number = 2n+5

2n+1+2n+3+2n+5=153

6n+9=153

6n=144

n=24

24*2+1=48+1=49

24*2+3=48+3=51

24*2+5=48+5=53

the numbers are 49, 51, and 53.

Answer:

48%

Step-by-step explanation:

24 is almost 25 which is half of 50 you it would be 48%, hope this helps!:)

Answer:

Axis interception points of -52 :

Y intercepts : (0,-52 )