Physical science pls help fast rapidly:

Physical Science Pls Help Fast Rapidly:

Answers

Answer 1

There is no motion observed.

The sum of the forces or the net force is equal to zero.

The net force = sum of force of two blue ball  - sum of force of one medium red ball.

The forces are balanced as there is no motion observed.

What is a net force?

The net force is a single force that cancels out the original forces' influence on the motion of the particle.

The vector sum of the forces exerted on a particle or object is known as the net force.

The net force is derived by summing the oppositely acting forces by simple algebraic addition or by vector addition for forces acting at an angle to each other.

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Related Questions

The addition of oxygen to RuBP by rubisco to form a two-carbon product that is then broken down by the cell to carbon dioxide and water defines

Answers

Photorespiration is defined as the addition of oxygen to RuBP by rubisco to form a two-carbon product, which is then broken down by the cell to carbon dioxide and water.

The evolution of CO2 during photosynthesis is known as photorespiration. It occurs as a result of rubisco's ability to function as either a carboxylase (incorporating CO2) or an oxygenase (incorporating O2). Rubisco functions primarily as a carboxylase in the presence of relatively high CO2 levels.

Photorespiration is the process by which molecular oxygen (O2) is taken up by light and carbon dioxide (CO2) is released from organic compounds. The gas exchange is similar to respiration and works in the opposite direction of photosynthesis, where CO2 is fixed and O2 is released.

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PLEASE HELP ME I NEED HELP

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a) The wound is situated in the left posterior inferior lumbar region.

b) The injury is on the right anterior, more specifically in the medial crural region.

What part of the body is the lumbar region?

In tetrapod anatomy, the lumbar region refers to the abdominal region of the torso, which is situated between the diaphragm and the sacral. Other names for the lumbar region include the lower spine or the area of the back around it.

The term "lumbar vertebrae" refers to the remaining vertebrae that are located between the top of the sacrum and the last thoracic bone. In contrast to the sacral vertebrae, which are caged within the pelvic bones, the coccyx is the terminal vertebrae or "rudimentary tail." In total, there are five vertebrae in the lower back.  

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........................help
incase u can't see the question or answers
question: according to this diagram, at which point will the strongest winds be located
a: point 1
b: point 2
c: point 3
d: point 4​

Answers

I think it point four

the function of mitosis ismultiple choicegrowth of the organism and tissue repair.to ensure that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information.asexual reproduction in some species.only the first two answers are correct.all of the choices are correct.

Answers

The functions of mitosis are

A. growth of the organism and tissue repair.

B. to ensure that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information.

C. asexual reproduction in some species.

Thus, the correct option is D (All of the choices are correct).

Mitosis, а process of cell duplicаtion, or reproduction, during which one cell gives rise to two geneticаlly identicаl dаughter cells. Strictly аpplied, the term mitosis is used to describe the duplicаtion аnd distribution of chromosomes, the structures thаt cаrry the genetic informаtion. Mitosis is аbsolutely essentiаl to life becаuse it provides new cells for growth аnd for replаcement of worn-out cells.

Some orgаnisms cаn use mitosis to reproduce аsexuаlly. The offspring of аsexuаl reproduction аre geneticаlly identicаl to eаch other аnd to their pаrent. Most single-celled, microorgаnisms reproduce аsexuаlly by duplicаting their genetic mаteriаl аnd dividing in hаlf.

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count the number of cells in each slide

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In the counting region, center a microscope with a 5–10x objective on the gridlines.

What is meant by cells?

The smallest unit in biology that is capable of independent living and that comprises all living things as well as the body's tissues. The cell membrane, nucleus, and cytoplasm make up a cell's three basic structural components. The cell membrane, which encloses the cell, regulates the molecules that enter and exit the cell.

A hemocytometer should be used with cell concentrations of no more than 106 cells per milliliter. The best cell concentration for an Improved Neubauer chamber is between 2.5 × 105 to 2.5 × 106 cells/ml. You might therefore need to concentrate or dilute your sample before counting.

Focus a microscope with a 5–10x objective on the grid lines of the counting region. The cells in a single set of 16 squares (1 mm square; blue area) should be counted. Establish a rule for counting. Take the average cell count from each of the 16 sets of corner squares to determine how many cells per milliliter there are.

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The dominant allele for dimples is D. What genetic condition does an individual with the alleles dd have?

Answers

Answer:

The genotic condition I a

Santiago Elena and Richard Lenski performed long-term artificial selection experiments with bacteria. Over time, the bacteria evolved an ability to use succinate as a food source. Which of the following is a conclusion of these experiments?A. All of the answer options are correct.B. Natural selection can occur in the laboratory.C. Bacteria can evolve an improved ability to use succinate.D. Evolution can occur in the laboratory.E. Bacteria can evolve over time

Answers

As over time, the bacteria evolved an ability to use succinate as a food source all of the answer options are correct is a conclusion of these experiments. Option A.

Santiago Elena and Richard Lenski conducted long-term artificial selection experiments with bacteria, wherein the bacteria evolved an ability to use succinate as a food source.

These experiments demonstrate that natural selection can occur in the laboratory and that bacteria can evolve an improved ability to use succinate and over time.

Through natural selection, bacteria have evolved and begun to use succinate as a food source. This means that the bacteria can evolve over time in a laboratory.

Therefore, option A is correct, as all of the answer options are reflective of the results of the experiments.

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Below are ingredients found in an energy blend of an energy drink. Which of these ingredients aids in digestion of some minerals of the body?
A. Taurine
B. Glucuronic acid
C. Phenylalanine
D. Malic acid
E. Tyrosine

Answers

Taurine aid in the digestion of some minerals in the body. Therefore the correct answer is option A.

The human body naturally produces taurine, an amino acid. The form seen in power drinks is produced, though.

It aids in controlling energy levels, muscular contractions, and heartbeat. In most cases, the body produces enough taurine to avoid the need for supplements.

It is hypothesized, but not shown, that the body does not produce enough during "stressful situations" like disease, physical activity, or injury, and supplements can assist.  

The neurotransmitter taurine may have a slight inhibitory effect. According to some research, it supports excitable brain states, which may help people work more effectively when other stimulants are present in higher doses.

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Which of the
following is easiest
to regulate?
A. acid deposition
B. runoff from agricultural
lands
C. sediment from
construction sites
D. effluent from factories

Answers

The easiest to regulate will be acid deposition.

Option A is correct.

What is pollutants?

A pollutant or also called a novel entity is described as a substance or energy introduced into the environment that has undesired effects, or adversely affects the usefulness of a resource.

The main pollutants present in most drinking water sources are organic substances, ammonia nitrogen, phenols, pesticides and pathogenic micro-organisms.

Therefore a great way to reduce acid deposition is to produce energy without using fossil fuels.

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Answer:

D. effluent from factories

Explanation:

I just did it on Acellus and it was right. Answer A is INCORRECT!

osteopenia is thinner than average bone density. this term is used to describe the condition of someone who does not yet have osteoporosis, but is at risk for developing it.

Answers

True, Osteopenia is a condition in which a person is at risk of developing osteoporosis but does not yet have it. Bones become brittle and prone to breaking due to the condition.

Osteoporosis, which is characterised by decreased bone mass and poor bone quality, can develop as a result of unregulated bone loss. People with osteoporosis have bones that are easily broken by even a small impact. A minor fall, such as tripping over a loose rug in the living room, might cause a bone to break in someone with osteoporosis.

Bone strength is evaluated using bone density assays. These tests are used by medical professionals to detect osteoporosis and diagnose it. The exams are crucial because they might warn you of issues with your bones before you have fractures.

The complete question is:

T/F: Osteopenia is thinner than average bone density. this term is used to describe the condition of someone who does not yet have osteoporosis, but is at risk for developing it.

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body planes are answer surfaces along which the body or a structure is cut for anatomical or pathological study.TrueFalse

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True. Body planes are the cutting surfaces used to make cuts in the body or even a structure for anatomical as well as pathological research.

Body planes are fictitious geometric planes that are used to segment the body. They are frequently used to define the position or angular orientation of body structures in both animal and human anatomy. The Sagittal Plane (also known as the Lateral Plane) is a vertical plane that runs from front to back and divides the body into its right and left sides. The typical anatomical stance for a human is standing with their feet together again and pointing forward, without any long bones being crossed from the observer's point of view. (Sagittal, Coronal, Transverse) Three anatomical planes allow for the slicing of tissues and/or the taking of photographs.

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A plant stem's two main functions are to support the leaves and to transport materials
between roots and leaves. As a stem develops, it possesses three types of permanent
tissues: surface tissue, ground tissue, and vascular tissue. The surface and ground
tissues support and give structure to the plant. The vascular tissues are the transport
systems of the plant. The vascular tissues usually exist in one of three patterns and are
known as the phloem and xylem.
Both the xylem and phloem are made up of several different types of cells that make up
transport tubes for needed nutrients. In general, xylem nutrients (sap) travel from the roots
to the rest of the plant. Phloem sap is derived from photosynthesizing leaves and from
there is carried throughout the plant.
What would we be able to study by injecting a nutrient dye into the root of a plant?
OA. xylem sap transport
B. phloem sap transport
C. all vascular tissues
D. total plant photosynthesis
OE. pith and cortex cells

Answers

I believe that the answer would be (A)

1.Which type of wave needs a medium to travel?(1 point)


sound waves, because they travel by oscillating molecules


light waves, because they travel by oscillating molecules


sound waves, because they travel by oscillating electromagnetic fields


light waves, because they travel by oscillating electromagnetic fields

Answers

Answer:

lighf waves becuse they travel by oscillating molecules

describe and give examples of continuous reinforcement and partial reinforcement schedules (fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed interval and variable interval).

Answers

Continuous reinforcement is when a behavior is reinforced every time it is exhibited, while partial reinforcement schedules is a schedule where a behavior is reinforced only some of the time.

Continuous reinforcement refers to a schedule of reinforcement in which a behavior is reinforced every time it is exhibited. For example, if a pigeon is trained to peck a button and receives food every time it pecks the button, that would be an example of continuous reinforcement.

Partial reinforcement schedules refer to a schedule of reinforcement in which a behavior is reinforced only some of the time. There are four types of partial reinforcement schedules: fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed interval, and variable interval.

Fixed ratio schedule: A behavior is reinforced only after a specific number of responses. For example, if a factory worker is paid every 10 widgets they produce, that would be an example of a fixed ratio schedule.Variable ratio schedule: A behavior is reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses. For example, playing a slot machine is an example of variable ratio schedule, because the number of times the lever must be pulled before winning the jackpot is unpredictable.Fixed interval schedule: A behavior is reinforced only after a specific amount of time has passed. For example, a teacher only giving a quiz every two weeks is an example of a fixed interval schedule.Variable interval schedule: A behavior is reinforced after an unpredictable amount of time has passed. For example, a pop quiz is an example of a variable interval schedule, because the teacher does not announce when the quiz will be given.

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The diagram summarizes the steps of photosynthesis inside chloroplasts.
Light
Electron
Photosystems
Electron transport chains
ADP+P
NADP+ + H+
ATP synthase
ATP
NADPH
ADP+P
ATP
CO
CO₂
OCO
Stroma
Calvin
cycle
ATP
Sugar
ek
ADP + P
NADPH
NADP+ + H
OCO
A. An increase in the amount of O₂ that the cell can absorb
B. A decrease in the formation of chlorophyll in thylakoids
C. An increase in the amount of CO₂ that the cell can absorb
D. A decrease in the formation of ATP by the light reactions
An excess of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in a chloroplast makes conditions there
more acidic. Such a change can cause protein molecules in cells to change
shape and stop functioning. Which change is most likely to happen if a
chloroplast contains too much CO₂?

Answers

D. A decrease in the formation of ATP by the light reactions.

Which change is most likely to happen if a chloroplast contains too much CO₂?If a chloroplast contains too much carbon dioxide (CO₂), the pH of the chloroplast will drop, making the environment more acidic. This acidic environment can cause a change in the shape of some protein molecules, which can lead to a decrease in the activity of enzymes. The decrease in enzyme activity can lead to a decrease in overall photosynthesis. As photosynthesis is the process in which plants synthesize their own food, this decrease in photosynthesis can be detrimental to the plant.In addition to a decrease in photosynthesis, an increase in CO₂ can also cause a decrease in the formation of chlorophyll. Chlorophyll is the pigment in plants that absorbs light and helps with photosynthesis. A decrease in chlorophyll can lead to a decrease in the amount of light that is absorbed and a decrease in the amount of energy that is produced. Furthermore, an increase in CO₂ can also lead to a decrease in the amount of oxygen that is produced, as oxygen is a byproduct of photosynthesis.Overall, an increase in CO₂ in a chloroplast can cause the protein molecules to change shape and the enzyme activity to decrease, leading to a decrease in photosynthesis, a decrease in the formation of chlorophyll, and a decrease in the production of oxygen.

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What percentage of the children will be non-tasters of PTC

Answers

Answer:

According to a study by the University of Florida, approximately 25% of children are non-tasters of PTC. This means that 25% of children have a genetic mutation that prevents them from tasting the bitter compound found in some foods.

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. Science students in Alma’s class are observing prepared slides of the cells of maple tree leaves and mammal skin cells. Their teacher records their observations on the board as they study the cells under the microscope’s highest magnification. Which would be included in the teacher’s list?

a. The leaf cells have green organelles called chloroplasts; the animal cells do not.
b. Both the animal and plant cells have an oval shape and are about the same size.
c. Both types of cells have a membrane that is also surrounded by a cell wall.
d. The skin cells have a nucleus, but the cells of the leaves have no nucleus

Answers

Answer: A. The leaf cells have green organelles called chloroplasts; the animal cells do not.

Is the size of an organism’s genome related to its complexity?

Considering the animals compared in Figure 5-08, what do you find most surprising about the relative numbers of base pairs (rungs on the DNA “ladder”) among the fruit fly, salamander and human? What assumptions do you hold about these three species that may relate to your surprise? Bonus: what is a probable reason for the large amount of DNA found in an Amoeba?

Answers

The organism’s genome is not related to its complexity.

How to explain the complexity?

The size of an organism's genome is not necessarily related to its complexity. Some organisms, such as certain species of ferns, have very large genomes (hundreds of billions of base pairs) while others, such as certain bacteria, have very small genomes (less than a million base pairs).

Additionally, some organisms with relatively small genomes, such as humans, are considered to be highly complex, while others with large genomes, such as certain species of algae, are considered to be relatively simple. The relationship between genome size and complexity is complex and not well understood.

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During what stage do the chromosomes pull a part

Answers

Answer:

Anaphase

Explanation:

The sister chromatids separate from each other and are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.  Each is now its own chromosome. The chromosomes of each pair are pulled towards opposite ends of the cell.

Answer:

Anaphase

Explanation:

After metaphase is complete, the cell enters anaphase. During anaphase, the microtubules attached to the kinetochores contract, which pulls the sister chromatids apart and toward opposite poles of the cell . At this point, each chromatid is considered a separate chromosome.

The botulinum toxin achieves its deadly effects by blocking the release of dopamine at the neuromuscular junction. True or False

Answers

False, The botulinum toxin doesn't achieves its deadly effects by blocking the release of dopamine at the neuromuscular junction.

Acetylcholine (ACh), a neurotransmitter that is found in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and the central nervous system (CNS), is blocked from being released and having its effects by the action of botulinum toxin at the neuromuscular junction (motor plaque) (SNP). Botulinum toxin disrupts the nervous impulse by preventing the release of acetylcholine, which results in a distinctive flaccid paralysis of the muscles. This effect is utilized to smooth out wrinkles on the chin and facial skin, as well as to treat a number of human disorders that are defined by hyperfunction of particular neuron terminals. Although they are uncommon, this treatment's side effects are typically caused by the drug's active ingredient or by misconduct in the medical field.

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An individual who greatly respects those in positions of power is generally supportive of ______ .

Answers

A person who values authority figures highly is typically an authoritarian supporter.

What does authoritarian leadership entail? A person who values authority figures highly is typically an authoritarian supporter.An individual who practices authoritarian leadership, often referred to as autocratic leadership, has complete control over all decisions and the people under his/her supervision.When a leader sets all rules and regulations, determines the objectives to be met, and controls all actions without allowing subordinates to have any real say in the matter, that leader is exhibiting an authoritarian leadership style.The team has little autonomy under such a boss because they have complete influence over them.Authoritarian leadership refers to a style of management in which the boss instructs the team members what to do and how to do it without seeking their input or suggestions.

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the peptide bond group of answer choices is formed by elimination of water between two amino groups in an amindo acid limits the possible orientations of the peptide backbone in a protein has acidic and basic characteristics all of these g

Answers

the peptide bond  limits the possible orientations of the peptide backbone in a protein. it is a dehydration synthesis reaction.

A peptide bond in organic chemistry is a sort of covalent chemical bond called an amide that connects two alpha-amino acids in a row starting from C1 (carbon number one) of one and N2 (nitrogen number two) of another, along a peptide or protein chain. It can also be referred to as a "eupeptide bond" to differentiate it from a "isopeptide bond," which is an additional kind of amide bond that connects two amino acids. Condensation reaction occurs when two amino acids combine to create a dipeptide through a peptide link. Two amino acids condense in this manner when their non-side chain (C1) carboxylic acid moiety approaches their non-side chain (N2) amino moiety.

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Option 2 is Correct. The various orientations of the peptide backbone of a protein are restricted by the peptide bond.

In organic chemistry, an amide chemical bond known as a peptide bond joins two alpha-amino acids in a row beginning with C1 (carbon number one) of one and N2 (nitrogen number two) of another, along a peptide or protein chain. To distinguish it from an extra type of amide bond that joins two amino acids, known as a "isopeptide bond," it can alternatively be referred to as a "eupeptide bond."

When two amino acids unite to form a dipeptide through a peptide link, condensation process takes place. When the non-side chain (C1) carboxylic moiety of two amino acids approaches the non-side chain (N2) amino moiety, they condense in this way.

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Correct Question:

The peptide bond group of answer choices

1. is formed by elimination of water between two amino groups in an amino acid

2. limits the possible orientations of the peptide backbone in a protein

3. has acidic and basic characteristics

4. all of these

Which of the following standard-setting bodies have worked to converge their auditing standards with one another?

Answers

The ASB and IAASB have been working to converge  their auditing standards with one another.

The Auditing Standards Board (ASB) is the senior committee of the AICPA that Council has designated to issue auditing, attestation, and quality control standards as well as practice guidance for carrying out and disclosing on audit and attestation engagements for non-issuers (i.e., entities not covered by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) jurisdiction).

The senior committee of the AICPA for compilations or reviews, the Accounting and Review Services Committee (ARSC), is in charge of issuing pronouncements in relation to nonpublic entities' unaudited financial statements or other unaudited financial information. With the ultimate goal of serving the public interest, its mission is to develop and disseminate comprehensive performance and reporting standards and practice guidance to enable accountants of non issuers to offer high-quality, objective compilation and review services.

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one difference in the older and a younger adult who contract urinary infections is that the older person

Answers

One difference in the older and a younger adult who contract urinary infections is that the older person may demonstrate a lower than normal temperature.

Urinary infections are an all-too-normal, excruciating disturbance or more regrettable for more youthful grown-ups, especially ladies. Sadly, you don't be guaranteed to grow out of UTIs in more seasoned age. For example, over 16% of ladies more established than 65 revealed having included a UTI inside the previous year, expanding to almost 30% in ladies north of 85, as per figures detailed in the Walk 2014 issue of Irresistible Illness Facilities of North America. UTIs additionally expansion in more seasoned men.

As you age, UTIs might influence you in an unexpected way. For certain seniors, dementia can additionally confuse UTI anticipation and discovery. Your urinary plot incorporates your urethra, bladder, ureters and kidneys. Pee, which is made in the kidneys, streams down through the ureter cylinders to be put away in the bladder. At the point when you pee, pee goes through the urethra, another cylinder, and out of the body. Cystitis is disease of the bladder, and urethritis is contamination of the urethra. A urinary plot contamination can include any piece of this framework. Albeit most UTIs influence the lower urinary parcel, high level UTIs can include the kidneys, which is more serious.

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(Complete question) is:

one difference in the older and a younger adult who contract urinary infections is that the older person _________.

HELPP Im not sure about these and I can’t get it wrong:)

Answers

Note that the descriptions related to the Ecosystem are matched to the options as follows:

Prairie Dogs: Digs holes that aerate the soil and provide habitat to others with their burrows.Elephant Seals: Their restored habitat regulates freshwater downstream of them.Bats: Regulate the spread of rabies (via feral dogs) into human populations.Leopards: Keep baboons from tearing up farm fields.Reindeer: Food, clothing and meat for people of the tundra.Vultures: Regulate the spread of lyme disease into human populations.Pandas: Tramples the ground to keep it aerated and fertilized, keeping the grasslands healthy.Hawks: Keep insect pests off of our crops.

What is an Ecosystem?

An ecosystem is made up of all the species and the physical environment in which they live. These biotic and abiotic elements are connected via nutrient cycles and energy fluxes. Photosynthesis delivers energy into the system, which is then absorbed into plant tissue.

The ability of natural processes and components to supply commodities and services that directly or indirectly meet human needs is referred to as ecosystem function.

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sort the statements into the appropriate bin depending on whether or not they correctly describe some aspect of substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis.

Answers

The following is correct statements describe some aspect of substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis:

A molecule derived from the breakdown of glucose is one of the substrates.The reaction requires the presence of an enzyme.Before ATP can form, a bond between an organic molecule and phosphate must be broken.

The statements that are incorrect:

The phosphate group that is added to ADP to produce ATP is derived from free inorganic phosphate ions.To produce ATP, the enzymes involved in ATP synthesis must be attached to a membrane.

This route involves phosphorylation (the addition of a phosphate group to glucose) (substrate). This transformation occurs in two steps: the first, or preparatory phase, by the enzyme Hexokinase, and the second, where Fructose-1-phosphate is converted to Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.

The question is incomplete, it should be:

Sort the statements into the appropriate bin depending on whether or not they correctly describe some aspect of substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis.

-One of the substrates is a molecule derived from the breakdown of glucose.

-An enzyme is required in order for the reaction to occur.

-A bond must be broken between an organic molecule and phosphate before ATP can form.

-The phosphate group added to ADP to make ATP comes from free inorganic phosphate ions.

-The enzymes involved in ATP synthesis must be attached to a membrane to produce ATP

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what is the sequence of the above pictured dna molecule in the 3 bp region enclosed in the box? give only the sequence of the strand on the left reading from bottom to top. use upper case letters (a for adenine, g for guanine, c for cytosine, t for thymine). do not leave any spaces.

Answers

The 3′-end (three prime finish) of a strand is so named because it ends at the hydroxyl gathering of the third carbon in the sugar ring and is known as the last part.

Each gathering of three bases in mRNA comprises a codon, and every codon determines a specific amino corrosive (subsequently, it is a trio code). The mRNA succession is in this manner utilized as a layout to collect — all together — the chain of amino acids that structure a protein.

DNA is made out of two strands of nucleotides kept intact by hydrogen holding. The strands each run from 5' to 3' and run in antiparallel, or inverse, bearings from each other.

Each finish of a DNA particle has a number. One end is alluded to as 5' (five prime) and the opposite end is alluded to as 3' (three prime). The 5' and 3' assignments allude to the number of carbon particles in a deoxyribose sugar particle to which a phosphate bunch bonds.

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A DNA particle has a number on each end. Five prime is mentioned at one end, while three prime is mentioned at the other (three prime).

The deoxyribose sugar particle's number of carbon atoms that a phosphate bunch attaches to is indicated by the 5' and 3' assignments.

Because it stops at the hydroxyl gathering of the third carbon in the sugar ring and is referred to as the last portion, the 3′-end (three prime finish) of a strand is so named.

In mRNA, each grouping of three nucleotides is called a codon, and each codon determines a certain amino acid (subsequently, it is a trio code). In this way, the sequence of mRNA is used as a pattern to gather all of the amino acid chains that make up a protein.

Two strands of nucleotides make up DNA, and hydrogen holds the nucleotides together. Each of the strands extends from 5' to 3' and moves in an inverse or antiparallel direction from the other.

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Which of the following statements about good experiments is TRUE?
- A good experiment must include all possible causal factors in one experimental group.
- A good experiment should have at least two groups: one control group and one experimental group.
- A good experiment should include a potentially confounding factor in at least one group.
- A good experiment should only include replication if the hypothesis has never been tested before

Answers

the following statements about good experiments is TRUE

A good experiment should have at least two groups: one control group and one experimental group.

An experimental group is a group of subjects in an experiment that is exposed to a manipulation of an independent variable, also known as a treatment. The experimental group is used as a point of comparison to a control group, which is not exposed to the manipulation of the independent variable. The goal of the experimental group is to determine whether the manipulation of the independent variable has an effect on the dependent variable, which is the outcome being measured. The experimental group allows researchers to establish cause-and-effect relationships between the independent and dependent variables, as the manipulation of the independent variable can be linked to changes in the dependent variable. The experimental group is an essential aspect of experimental design in scientific research, as it allows researchers to test hypotheses, evaluate theories, and draw conclusions about the phenomenon being studied.

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his group of questions consists of five lettered headings followed by a list of phrases or sentences. for each phrase or sentence, select the one heading to which it is most closely related. each heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all. this group of questions refers to the following groups of biological compounds.

Answers

The correct heading to which the given phrase is closely related is Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions of photosynthesis).

According to the definition of photosynthesis, it is the process through which certain microorganisms and green plants produce food when exposed to sunlight. When the organic molecule is in the presence of carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight, glucose is produced. The process by which oxygen is produced as a byproduct is called photosynthesis. An example of an oxidation-reduction reaction is photosynthesis. Water passes through oxidation whereas carbon dioxide goes through reduction.

The Kreb's cycle, often known as the citric acid cycle, is a critical phase of cellular respiration. The breakdown of acetyl coenzyme A (decarboxylated pyruvate) takes place in the mitochondrial matrix.

The fixation of carbon dioxide into sugar molecules occurs during the Calvin cycle, also known as the light-independent processes of photosynthesis. ATP and NADH are created as a result of the process, which occurs in the thylakoid membrane. In the absence of sunshine, the procedure takes place.

The photosynthesis process involves the transformation of light energy into chemical energy. Within thylakoids, the activity takes place in the presence of oxygen.

Ions must flow across the membrane during chemiosmosis. An electrochemical gradient is created as a result. The synthesis of ATP is driven by this electrochemical gradient.

Prokaryotes and eukaryotes engage in glycolysis, which involves the breakdown of glucose to produce energy. It is a crucial phase of the respiration process. Pyruvate, the byproduct of glycolysis, is added to a number of cycles to provide energy.

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throughout photosynthesis, energy is transferred from light to several molecules with increas- ingly higher potential energy. use the words below to summarize the order in which the energy fl ow occurs.

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In photosynthesis, energy is carried by various small and large molecules from one part of plant body to other part.

A substance response filled by the energy of the sun, photosynthesis changes over carbon dioxide, water and daylight into glucose and oxygen. Autotrophs, life forms like plants that make their own food, use photosynthesis to fuel development, proliferation and fix of their cells. Photosynthesis happens in two phases: the light-reliant responses and the light autonomous responses.

Since plants can't utilize the energy from the sun straightforwardly to create glucose, daylight is changed over into synthetic energy through the development of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate hydrogen (NADPH). During the light-reliant responses of photosynthesis, ATP and NADPH are made; these are energy-conveying particles. The synthetic energy put away in ATP and NADPH is then utilized during the light-free phase of photosynthesis, which is otherwise called the Calvin cycle, to create starches.

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