im really slow help please

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

AB/AC =1/2

(3x-4)/(2x+12)=1/2

2(3x-4) = 1(2x+12)

6x-8=2x+12

4x=20

X=5

AC/BC =3x-4/7x-2=22/33=2/3

AB/AC=3x-4/7x-2=22/33=2/3

AB/AC=3x-4/2x+12

6x-8=2x+12

You would get 4/5 still trying to work out the last mark

Step-by-step explanation:

First find x:

AB:AC=1:2

2(3x-4)=2x+12

6x-8=2x+12

4x-8=12

4x=20

x=5

Substitute:

AC=2x+12

=(2x5)+12

=10+12

=22

BC=7x-2

=(7x5)-2

=35-2

=33

22/33=2/3

Therefore AC:BC = 2:3

Step-by-step explanation:

number of minutes I guess

Answer:

$30.38

Step-by-step explanation:

Final Price = Original Price - Discount

Final Price = 75 - 41.25

Final Price = $33.75

Then its the additional 10%

So now you make your original cost $33.75 to make it easier so

Final Price = Original Price - Discount

Final Price = 33.75 - 3.375

Final Price = $30.38

Final Answer: $30.38

The final price Kelly will pay round to the nearest cent is $30 38¢

In mathematics, a percent is a number or ratio expressed as a fraction of 100. It is often denoted using percentage sign "%".

Now it is given that,

Discount = 55%

Additional discount = 10%

Original Price of Blue Sandals = $75

Original Price of Tan Sandals =  $68

Since Kelly bought blue sandels,

So, discount on Blue Sandals = 55% of $75

⇒ discount on Blue Sandals = 0.55 * $75 = $41.25

So, Cost of Blue Sandals = $75 - $41.25

⇒ Cost of Blue Sandals = $33.75

Now there is additional discount of 10%

Additional discount = 10% of $33.75

⇒ Additional discount = 0.10% * $33.75

⇒ Additional discount = $3.375

Thus, Final Cost of Blue Sandals = $33.75 - $3.375

⇒ Final Cost of Blue Sandals = $30.375

Round to the nearest cent final cost of Blue Sandals = $30 38¢

Thus, the final price Kelly will pay round to the nearest cent is $30 38¢

To learn more about Percentage visit :

brainly.com/question/24304697

#SPJ2

Answer:

The answer is D: y = -2x + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

the y-intercept is 6, and the slope goes down 2 and right 1. -2/1 is the same as -2.

I hope this helped and if it did I would appreciate it if you marked me Brainliest. Thank you and have a nice day!

Answer:

$2857.60 because when yu multiply the loan times the % yu get 1428.80 because it’s the end of 1 year and the question is asking for the end of 2 years so yu have to double it.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\int^{\pi}_{0}sin(x)dx = 2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for the value of [tex]\int^{\pi}_{0}sin(x)dx[/tex], we need to first find the antiderivative of [tex]sin(x)[/tex].

Since the derivative of [tex]cos(x)[/tex] is [tex]-sin(x)[/tex], therefore the derivative of [tex]-cos(x)[/tex] is [tex]sin(x)[/tex]. With this:

[tex]\int^{\pi}_{0}sin(x)dx = -cos(\pi)-(-cos(0))[/tex]

[tex]=-cos(\pi)+cos(0)[/tex]

[tex]=-(-1)+1[/tex]

[tex]=2[/tex]

∴ [tex]\int^{\pi}_{0}sin(x)dx = 2[/tex]

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

the first one is b= 52

the second one is b= 63

Answer:

4.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.000032, 0.0000064

Step-by-step explanation:

Each is divided by 5

0.00032 and 0.00064

Think, each is divided by 5!

0.1, 0.02, 0.0004, 0.00008, 0.00016, 0.00032, 0.00064.

Posted By:

ehie, BenjiDev#3339

Answer:

13 / 19

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

U = 130

Let :

s = swimming pool

t = track

g = gym

n(g) = 61 ; n(s) = 68 ; n(t) = 60

n(g n s) = 25 ; n(t n s) = 30 ; n(g n t) = 19

n(g n s n t) = 6

n(g n t) only = n(g n t) - n(g n s n t) = 19 - 6 = 13

Hence, probability that a randomly scted person uses the gym and track and does not use the swimming pool = n(g n t) only ÷ n(g n t)

= 13 / 19

= 13 / 19

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  8 3/4 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Time is inversely proportional to speed for the same distance. The time for 1.2 times the speed will be 1/1.2 times the given time:

  (10.5 h)/1.2 = 8.75 h

It will take 8.75 hours at the increased speed.

Answer:

78 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

72/12=6

6*13=78

Answer:

Each team played 22 games.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 teams in the league, so each team has 11 rival teams. Since each team will play against a rival team twice, that means that each team will need to play 11 x 2 = 22 games per season. Of these 22 games, 11 games will be played at home while 11 games will be played away from home.

We can calculate this by using the following formula:

Total number of games played by each team = (n - 1) x 2, where n is the total number of teams in a league.

Answer:

the third one

Answer:

D is your answer HOPE THIS HELPS THANK ME PLEASE

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = 9.2

Step-by-step explanation:

21.7 - 12.5 = 9.2

Answer:

y = 9.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Wow your cat is so naughty but cute. On a scale from one to 10 I say 10

Step-by-step explanation:

This is why I dont have pets

Answer:

here's the answers............

Answer:

The number of feet she will travel back is 1 or 7 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we need to solve the quadratic equation

That will be as follows;

0 = x^2 -8x + 7

x^2-x-7x+ 7 = 0

x(x-1)-7(x-1) = 0

(x-1)(x-7) = 0

x = 1 or 7

The number of feet she will travel before coming back to the surface of the water is 1 or 7 feet

Answer:

I think it's 25? If I can edit I'll come back with answer..(if it's not 25.)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The volume of the 80% ammonia that is to be drained before water is added is 7.5 quartz

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of the ammonia and water mixture = 5 gallons

The percentage of ammonia in the mixture = 80%

The volume of ammonia desired = 5 gallons

The percentage concentration of ammonia desired = 50%

The diluting solution = Pure water

The measure of 4 quarts = 1 gallon

Therefore, we have, by equivalence solutions;

80% × x gallon = 50% × 5 gallons

x gallon = 50% × 5 gallons/(80%) = 3.125 gallons

x = 3.125 gallons

The volume of the 80% ammonia that is to be drained = 5 gallons - 3.125 gallons = 1.875 gallons

4 quarts = 1 gallon

1 gallon = 4 quarts

∴ 1.875 gallons = 4 × 1.875 quartz = 7.5 quartz

The volume of the 80% ammonia that is to be drained before water is added = 7.5 quartz

Answer:

7.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-10c

Step-by-step explanation:

-4(c+2d)-2(3c-4d) = (-4c-8d) + (-6c+8d)

Multiply (-4) to both terms in the first bracket and multiply (-2) to both terms in the second bracket.

(-4c-8d) + (-6c+8d) = -4c-8d-6c+8d

Evaluate like terms.

-4c-8d-6c+8d = -10c

Answer:

Total possibilities = 16

Probability of a dime of the first draw is 10/16 = 5/8

Probability of a penny on the second draw = 1/15

Probability of both = 5/8 * 1/15 = 1/24

Answer:

Number of dimes in the bag = 90

Number of quarters in the bag = 186

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

x = Number of dimes in the bag

y = Number of quarters in the bag

= 2x + 6

Total = 276

276 = x + 2x + 6

276 = 3x + 6

276 - 6 = 3x

270 = 3x

x = 270/3

= 90

x = 90

Number of dimes in the bag = 90

Number of quarters in the bag = 2x + 6

= 2(90) + 6

=180 + 6

= 186

Total = Number of dimes in the bag + Number of quarters

= 90 + 186

= 276