If someone could help me out here it would be greatly appreciated.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for  calculating the amount after t years is expressed as;

A = P(1+r/n)*nt

P is the Principal (amount invested) = $300

r is the rate = 7% = 0.07

t is the time used to save = 11 years

n is time of compounding = 1/4 (quarterly)

Substitute;

A = 300 (1+0.07/(1/4))^(1/4)(11)

A = 300(1+4(0.07))^2.75

A = 300(1+0.28)^2.75

A = 300(1.28)^2.75

A = 300(1.9716)

A = 591.49

Hence the amount that will be in her account after 11 years is $591.49

Answer:

0.667

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Head is twice more likely to occur than a tail.

P(head) = p(H) = 2/3

P(tail) = p(T) = 1/3

If coin is tossed 3 times :

P(H = 0) :

1st toss = tail ;2nd toss = tail ; 3rd toss =. Tail

(1/3) * (1/3) * (1/3) = 1 / 27

P(H= 1)

HTT, THT, TTH

(2/3 * 1/3 * 1/3) + (1/3 * 2/3 * 1/3) + (1/3 * 1/3 *2/3)

= 2/27 + 2 /27 + 2/27

= 6/27 = 2/9

P(H=2)

HHT, HTH, THH

(2/3 * 2/3 * 1/3) + (2/3 * 1/3 * 2/3) + (1/3 * 2/3 * 2/3)

= 4/27 + 4/27 + 4/27

= 12 / 27

= 4 /9

P(H = 3)

HHH

(2/3 * 2/3 * 2/3)

= 8 / 27

X ___ 0 ___ 1 ____ 2 ____ 3

P(x) _ 1/27 _ 2/9 __ 4/9 __ 8/27

E(X) = (0 * (1/27)) + (1 * (2/9)) + (2 * (4/9)) + (3 * (8/27)) = 2

E(X) = 2

Var(X) = Σx²p(x) - E(X)²

= (0^2 * (1/27)) + (1^2 * (2/9)) + (2^2 * (4/9)) + (3^2 * (8/27)) - 2^2

= 4.667 - 4

= 0.667

Hence, Var(x) = 0.667

Answer:

-0.391 < x < 0.391

Step-by-step explanation:

The Maclaurin series for cosine is:

cos(x) = ∑ (-1)ⁿ x²ⁿ / (2n)!

So the next term would be -x⁶/6!.  When the absolute value of this is less than the error:

│-x⁶/6!│< 0.000005

x⁶ / 720 < 0.000005

x⁶ < 0.0036

-0.391 < x < 0.391

Answer:

yea

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes.

16 could also be written as 16.0, or 16.00 or even 16.00000.

16.4 could also be written as 16.40, or 16.400.

And of course, you know 4 is greater than 0.

This is why 16.4 is greater.

When you add a decimal to a number, it always makes it larger. its like saying 16 and 4 tenths.

Answer:

The answer is "Option A".

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability function is

[tex]\to P(X) = K_{{C}_{k}} \times \frac{N-K_{{C}_{n-k}}}{N_{C}_{n}}[/tex]

 The population size (N)= 28

The number of success in population(K) = 3

The number of draws (n)= 4

Answer:

0.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8/10

Step-by-step explanation:

5/5 is equivalent to 1 whole or one.

So all your suppose to do is 1 minus 2/10 which is 8/10.

Hope that helps

↖(^ω^)↗

Answer:

It stays true because it stays the same amount so B would be the correct answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

First, let's rearrange the given equation into something more recognizable. If we add 13 to both sides, we now have the polynomial [tex]x^{2}-10x+13[/tex]. We can now use the quadratic formula to solve.

Remember that the quadratic formula is

[tex]\frac{-b+/-\sqrt{b^{2}-4ac } }{2a}[/tex]

Substitute the numbers from the equation into the formula.

[tex]\frac{-(-10)+/-\sqrt{(-10)^{2}-4(1)(13) } }{2(1)}[/tex]

Simplify:

[tex]\frac{10+/-\sqrt{100-52} }{2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{10+/-\sqrt{48} }{2}[/tex]

Here, I'm going to assume that there was a mistype in option B because if we divide out the 2 we end up with [tex]5+/-\sqrt{48}[/tex].

Hope this helps!

Answer:

[tex]T_{2} = 200[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Geometry Progression

[tex]T_1 = 500[/tex]

[tex]T_4 = 32[/tex]

Required

Calculate the second term

First, we need to write out the formula to calculate the nth term of a GP

[tex]T_n = ar^{n-1}[/tex]

For first term: Tn = 500 and n = 1

[tex]500 = ar^{1-1}[/tex]

[tex]500 = ar^{0}[/tex]

[tex]500 = a[/tex]

[tex]a = 500[/tex]

For fought term: Tn = 32 and n = 4

[tex]32 = ar^{4-1}[/tex]

[tex]32 = ar^3[/tex]

Substitute 500 for a

[tex]32 = 500 * r^3[/tex]

Make r^3 the subject

[tex]r^3 = \frac{32}{500}[/tex]

[tex]r^3 = 0.064[/tex]

Take cube roots

[tex]\sqrt[3]{r^3} = \sqrt[3]{0.064}[/tex]

[tex]r = \sqrt[3]{0.064}[/tex]

[tex]r = 0.4[/tex]

Using:  [tex]T_n = ar^{n-1}[/tex]

[tex]n = 2[/tex]     [tex]r = 0.4[/tex]     and [tex]a = 500[/tex]

[tex]T_{2} = 500 * 0.4^{2-1}[/tex]

[tex]T_{2} = 500 * 0.4^1[/tex]

[tex]T_{2} = 500 * 0.4[/tex]

[tex]T_{2} = 200[/tex]

Hence, the second term is 200

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

80% +15% +5%=100

15/100= 0.15

5/100= 0.05

therfore

0.15 + 0.05 = number of flaws

=0.20

Based on the flaws that the manufacturer notices, we can infer that the expected number of flaws will be 0.25 which is e. none of the above.

The expected number of flaws is a weighted average of the percentages that have flaws:

=∑ (Percentage of flaws x Number of flaws)

The expected number of flaws is therefore:

= (80% x 0) + (15% x 1) + (5% x 2)

= 15% + 10%

= 0.25

In conclusion, you would expected the number of flaws to be 0.25.

Find out more at https://brainly.com/question/13412627.

Answer:

3/10 = x or 0.3 = x

Step-by-step explanation:

2.1 /  x + 1 4/5 = 3 / 10x

1. first cross multiply and solve it normally:

3 (x + 1 4/5) = (2.1) 10x

3x + 5 2/5 = 21x

-3x               -3x

5 2/5 = 18x

3/10 = x or 0.3 = x

these questions are kind annoying to solve because of the fractions, so if you can, use a calculator to solve them! its much easier!

hope this helps!

Answer:

x = 3/10 = 0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

{(2.1)/(x+1 4/5)} = 3/10x

x + 1 4/5 = x + 5/5 + 4/5 = x + 9/5

then:

(2.1)/(x+9/5) = 3/10x

10x*2.1 = 3(x+9/5)

21x = 3x+ 27/5

21x - 3x = 27/5

18x = 27/5

90x/5 = 27/5

90x = 27

x = 27/90

x = 3/10 = 0.3

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: y = -1x + 3

Step-by-step explanation:

it's going through the y intercept ( 3 )

and down ( negative by 1 )

you can also write the answer as y = -x + 3

either one, its the same.

Answer:

a)37

b)10

c)0 beacuse if there 11 then they would be speeding and also if it wrond try 10

d)28.571428571429%Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20 questions

Step-by-step explanation:

10 divided by 20 is 0.9 which would be 90%

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 60 because the equation u = 26 tells us u is 26

So we can plug in 26 into u + 34

It should look like this 26 + 34 and it equals 60

pls mark brainliest

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{15}{1}[/tex] multiplied by [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

which makes: [tex]\frac{15}{3}[/tex]

simplify: 5

Answer:

6/27

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]4 \frac{3}{6} \\ \\ = \frac{4 \times 6 + 3}{6} \\ \\ = \frac{24 + 3}{6} \\ \\ 4 \frac{3}{6} = \frac{27}{6} \\ \\ reciprocal \: of \: 4 \frac{3}{6} = \frac{6}{27} [/tex]

Answer:

(b) -6

Step-by-step explanation:

=3x-x+2

=3(-4)-(-4)+2

=-12+4+2

=-12+6

=-6

Answer:

He received $320 last year

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$320

Step-by-step explanation:

2(150 + 10)= x. x=2(160) x=320. SO he actually got 320 dollars for his birthday last year.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm answering this silly thing only because it seems to have an expected answer

B: is about the only answer you cannot give.

C and D are Both open ended at 15 which doesn't allow you to say that the first acceptable answer is 16

The only answer you can pick is A. The amount starts at 15 and you keep going until you hit 70. That doesn't mean you have to stop. It just means that it represents what he desires to make.

Answer:

The answer is 7.25

Step-by-step explanation:

I suggest you search for, "khan academy slope."

Hope this helps :)

Answer: (B) Addison can eliminate $45 from Food/Clothes and $41 from Entertainment.

Based on the information given, Addison should eliminate $45 from the money budget for Food/Clothes ($445.00) and $41 from Entertainment ($270.00).

Given the following data:

Mathematically, the monthly payment for a credit card can be calculated by using this formula:

[tex]M=P(\frac{r}{1-(1+r)^{-nt}} )[/tex]

Where:

In this scenario, Addison should eliminate $45 from the money budget for Food/Clothes ($445.00) and $41 from Entertainment ($270.00) because they are the least cuts to her current expenses and they would avail her an opportunity to pay off her balance in 24 months (2 years).

Read more on monthly payment here: https://brainly.com/question/2151013

Answer:

1 750 g

Step-by-step explanation:

hhhahahahahahahaha

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

True the table top can go on forever without touching the floor.

Answer:

Adjacent angles are two angles in the same plane with a common  VERTEX and a common  SIDE but no common interior points.

Step-by-step explanation:

Adjacent angles share a common side on the same vertes, but they do not overlap each other.

In the attached image, ∠ABD is adjacent to ∠DBC, but ∠ABC is not adjacent to any of them.

Answer:

$24.25

Step-by-step explanation:

$(17.75 + 6.5)

= $24.25

Hope this helped!