Fill in table using this function rule y= -4x - 2

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

(3.2+4.8)+[20+19+(-4)]

8. +. 47. -4

=43

Answer:

because x^n+1 =

the number which is n and n is an odd number and my odd number is 3 so

x^3+1= 4

= x^4

Answers:

2 sedans and 3 vans

=====================================================

Work Shown:

s = number of sedans

v = number of vans

1 sedan = 5 seats

s sedans = 5s seats

1 van = 7 seats

v vans = 7v seats

5s+7v = all seats

5s+7v = 31

Let's go through all the values of s to see which values of v work.

As a check:

2 sedans = 5*2 = 10 seats

3 vans = 7*3 = 21 seats

10+21 = 31 seats total

This confirms the answer.

The number of vans used is three and the number of sedans is two

Let :

v represent the number of vans

s represent the number of sedans

The following equations can be gotten

7v + 5s = 31 equation 1

v + s = 5 equation 2

The elimination method would be used to solve for v and s

Multiply equation 2 by 7

7v + 7s = 35 equation 3

Subtract equation 1 from 3

2s = 4

s = 4/2

s = 2

Substitute for s in equation 2

v + 2 = 5

v = 5 - 2

v = 3

To learn more about simultaneous equations, please check: brainly.com/question/23589883?referrer=searchResults

Answer: n= -20?

Step-by-step:

Simplify both sides of the equation

1/5n+4=0

Then subtract 4 from both sides

1/5n + 4 - 4 = 0 - 4

1/5n= -4

Then multiply both sides by 5

5*(1/5n)=5*(-4)

Answer:

0=n

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 0=4+n/5

add 4 and n

2. 0=4n/5

×5. ×5

3. 0=4n

-- --

4 4

4. 0=n

Look at the picture for a more detailed steps

Answer:

Not a triangle.

Step-by-step explanation:

Sum of the two smaller sides must be greater than the largest side.

Answer:

Fifteen minutes and twenty-four seconds.

Step-by-step explanation:

In four minutes, Estabon's drink cooled down 20 degrees (201 - 181 = 20). This means that the drink cooled down five degrees a minute. The drink must cool down 77 more degrees, (181 - 104 = 77). 77 divided by 5 is 15.4. 15.4 translated to seconds is 15 minutes and 24 seconds.

Answer:

I graphed this...

Step-by-step explanation:

It is not linear because it is not a strait line and it doesnt go through the middle!

Hope this helps! :)

Answer:

how soon tho

Step-by-step explanation:x= 4

Her monthly payment would be $180.56, the total of all her monthly payments would be $13,000 and the total finance charge is $3000.

The expression for the final amount for simple interest is

A = p(1+rt)

Given data

Principal = $10,000

Rate= 5 %= 0.05

Time = 6years (Assume)

A = p(1+rt)

A = 10,000(1+0.05×6)

A = 10,000(1+0.30)

A = 10,000(1.30)

A = 13,000

So the final amount for simple interest is $13,000

To determine her monthly payment

Given that it is spread over 6 years

There are 12×6 months= 72months

So monthly pay = 10000/72 = $180.56

The total of all her monthly payments would be $13,000 which is equal to the final amount.

The finance charge is equal to the interest.

⇒ $13,000 - $10,000 = $3000

So the finance charge would be $3000.

Therefore, her monthly payment would be $180.56, the total of all her monthly payments would be $13,000 and the total finance charge is $3000.

Learn more about the simple interest here:

brainly.com/question/22621039

#SPJ5

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

I think 9 since there’s a right angle, so there’s an assumed right angle on the other side of the line. 9 is the hypotenuse when AB is 3 so I think CD would also be 9 since BC is 3 as well.

Answer: 1.75 = y

Explanation: In the picture linked

Hope this helps

Answer:

NICEE

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11/16, 3/5, 7/10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$20 + $15m ≥ $80

Step-by-step explanation:

He starts off with $20.

He adds $15 each month, so $15m.

He wants to save at least $80, which means greater than or equal to $80. So, you use this symbol: ≥

Put it all together.

$20 + $15m ≥ $80

Hope that helps.

Answer:

319.872

Step-by-step explanation:

319.872 / 384 = 83 1/3 / 100

Final Answer: [tex]320[/tex]

Steps/Reasons/Explanation:

Question: Find [tex]83\frac{1}{3}[/tex]% of [tex]384[/tex].

Step 1: Convert mixed fraction into improper fraction.

[tex]\frac{250}{3}[/tex]

Step 2: Multiply [tex]\frac{250}{3 * 100}[/tex] with [tex]384[/tex].

[tex]\frac{96000}{300}[/tex]

Step 3: Simplify

[tex]320[/tex]

~I hope I helped you :)~

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

just imagine you are on a number line and the numbers are

-5....-4.....-3.....-2....-1....0....1....2.....3

as you see the midpoint is -1

Answer:

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Three less than half of a number is -1

The Half Of A Number means the number can be anything, so we can use "x." However, it is half so it would become: 1/2x.

Three less than means it is minus three, therefore becomes: 1/2x-3

However, three less than half of a number is (or in other words is equal too) -1,  so the overall equation is

1/2x - 3 = -1

first, add three on both sides to get:

      1/2x = 2

multiply two on both sides to get:

     x = 4

Answer:

y = 64

Step-by-step explanation:

The angles are supplementary, that is sum to 180° , thus

2(x + 6) + y = 180 ← substitute x = 52

2(52 + 6) + y = 180

2(58) + y = 180

116 + y = 180 ( subtract 116 from both sides )

y = 64

Answer:

It might be 1,050. Also can't believe thats a college question-

It was very easy to solve! Help from an 8th grader here.

Step-by-step explanation:

The smallest four-digit number that is divisible by each of the four smallest prime numbers is 1050.

The divisibility rule states that " Divisible By, implies that when two numbers are divided, the result would be a whole number.

The four smallest prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, and 7.

To find the smallest four-digit number that is divisible by each of these numbers, we can start by finding the least common multiple (LCM) of these numbers. The LCM of a set of numbers is the smallest number that is divisible by all of the numbers in the set.

To find the LCM of 2, 3, 5, and 7, we can start by listing the prime factorization of each number:

2 = 2 x 1

3 = 3 x 1

5 = 5 x 1

7 = 7 x 1

Then, we can find the LCM by taking the highest power of each prime that appears in any of the numbers:

LCM(2, 3, 5, 7) = 2¹ x 3¹ x 5¹ x 7¹  = 210

Since we want the "smallest 4-digit number", then it is:

210 x 5 =1050

Therefore, each of the four lowest prime numbers may be divisible by the smallest four-digit number, which is 1050.

Learn more about the divisibility rule here:

brainly.com/question/10703980

#SPJ2

Answer:

$9.90

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

answer is a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5 and 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2/3 or 2 to 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Good luck!

Answer:

A. S(t) = 50 [3 ln t/ln2 +1]

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told that the rate of change in sales S is inversely proportional to time.

Thus;

dS/dt = k/t

Where k is the constant of proportionality.

So,

dS = (k/t)dt

Integrating both sides gives us;

S = (kIn t) + C

We are given that after 2 and 4 weeks are 200 units and 350 units respectively.

Thus;

S(2);

(k In 2) + C = 200 - - - (eq 1)

(k In 4) + C = 350 - - - -(eq 2)

To find k, let's subtract eq 1 from eq 2 to get;

(k In 4) - (k In 2) = 350 - 200

(k In 4) - (k In 2) = 150

k(In 4 - In 2) = 150

0.6931k = 150

k = 150/0.6931

k = 216.42

Plugging this for k in eq 1 gives;

(216.42 In 2) + C = 200

C = 200 - 150

C = 50

Thus;

S(t) = (216.42In t) + 50

Now 216.42 can also be expressed as;

150/In 2

Thus;

S(t) = ((150/In 2)In t) + 50

Factorizing out gives;

S(t) = 50 [(3 ln t/ln2) + 1]

Option A is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

45% of number = 180

=> 100% of number = 180 * (100/45) = 400.

Hence the number is 400.

Answer:

$270,000

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find the area of the plot using the formula A = lw

A = lw

A = (300)(150)

A = 45,000

Then, multiply this by 6 to find the total cost:

45,000(6)

= 270,000

So, the cost to tile the plot is $270,000

Answer:

2700

Step-by-step explanation:

Length= 300m

width= 150 m

Area = Lx W = 300 x 150= 4500 sq m

rate per 100 sq meter= 6

so total cost = 4500/ 100 x 6

= 2700

hope it helps!

Answer:

<M = 32 and <Y = 103

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Since triangle BCM is congruent to triangle ZYR, we know the corresponding parts of the triangles are congruent. Therefore, <Z = <B = 45. The sum of a triangle’s angles is 180, so <M = 180 - <B - <C = 180 - 45 - 103 = 32

2. This is the exact same diagram, so we can use the information we have collected in #1. Since corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent, <Y must be congruent to <C, which equals 103. Therefore, <Y = 103.

I hope this helps! :)

Answer:

C) $54.00

Step-by-step explanation:

300*6%*3

300*0.06*3

which is $54.

Hope this helps plz hit the crown :D