differences between biodegradable and non biodegradable materials in atable

Answers

Answer 1

Wastes to freely decay or decay are said to as biogas. Wastes that are biodegradable are non-biodegradable. Biodegradable things involve stuff like plant, birds, & its waste, plus papers, fruits, & vegetables.

What exactly do we mean by "biodegradable"?

The ability of a material to decompose organically by the creatures in an environment is what we mean when we say something is biodegradable. Simply simply, "biodegradable" denotes a substance's ability to spontaneously disintegrate into smaller parts like gases and sugars. Microorganisms like bacteria and fungus enable the biodegradation to take place.

Describe a biodegradable example.

Biodegradable materials that can be broken down by microbes include food waste and paper scraps.

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Related Questions

Traits acquired during an organisms lifetime can be passed down to its offspring true or false

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

An acquired trait is the character developed in an individual as a result of environmental influence. These traits are not coded by the DNA of a living organism and therefore cannot be passed on to future generations.

FILL IN THE BLANK. A newly discovered fungal pathogen has recently begun to infect and kill many species of amphibians. When the pathogen infects a new amphibian species, it evolves specialized defenses against that amphibian species' immune system. This specialization makes strains of this pathogen on one amphibian species genetically distinct and unable to interbreed with pathogens on different amphibian species. Further, once the pathogen infects an individual, populations in different parts of their host's body evolve uniquely to deal with different environmental challenges. While individuals in different parts of the host's body are still genetically similar enough to interbreed, they end up having very different phenotypes. The two broad types of evolution occurring in this pathogen are _____ speciation and _____ by _____ selection.

Answers

The two broad types of evolution occurring in this pathogen are allopatric speciation and adaptation by natural selection.

Allopatric speciation occurs when a population becomes geographically isolated and diverges genetically, leading to the formation of new species. In the case of the fungal pathogen, the different amphibian species act as geographic barriers, causing the pathogen to evolve specialized defenses against each amphibian species' immune system and leading to the formation of genetically distinct strains of the pathogen that are unable to interbreed.

Adaptation by natural selection occurs when individuals with certain traits are better suited to their environment and are therefore more likely to survive and reproduce.

In the case of the fungal pathogen, populations in different parts of the host's body are exposed to different environmental challenges and evolve uniquely to deal with these challenges. While these populations are still genetically similar enough to interbreed, they end up having very different phenotypes due to natural selection.

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Which of the following statements is false, with regard to the transport of non-lipid-soluble substances across cell membranes?
A: Both active and passive transport mechanisms exist to move non-lipid-soluble substances across membranes.
B: Diffusion of substances across the cell membrane, from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, is considered a passive transport mechanism.
C: Attachment of a non-lipid-soluble molecule to a carrier protein is considered an active transport mechanism. Correct
D: Active transport mechanisms involve energy expenditure on the part of the cell.
e. The sodium-potassium transporter protein is an example of an active transport mechanism.

Answers

The false statement with regard to the transport of non-lipid-soluble substances across cell membranes is option C: Attachment of a non-lipid-soluble molecule to a carrier protein is considered an active transport mechanism.

This statement is false because attachment of a non-lipid-soluble molecule to a carrier protein is actually considered a passive transport mechanism. Passive transport does not require energy expenditure on the part of the cell, while active transport does.

The other statements are all true. Both active transport and passive transport mechanisms exist to move non-lipid-soluble substances across membranes (A), diffusion of substances across the cell membrane is considered a passive transport mechanism (B), active transport mechanisms involve energy expenditure on the part of the cell (D), and the sodium-potassium transporter protein is an example of an active transport mechanism (E).

Therefore, statement C is incorrect.

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Calculate the energy yield in ATP equivalents (assuming an active electron transport chain) when valine is degraded completely to CO2. Justify your answers by using compound names only to describe the relevant pathways (but not the electron transport chain). Structures may be used in place of compound names.

Answers

The valine catabolic pathway converts valine into pyruvate, NH3, and NADH when it is completely broken down to CO2. Pyruvate then enters the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, which, through a series of reactions, produces ATP and reducing equivalents (NADH and FADH2) as well.

Justify your answers by using compound names only to describe the relevant pathways (but not the electron transport chain).

When valine is completely broken down to CO2, there is a total energy yield of about 19 ATP equivalents. This is caused by the 3 ATP equivalents produced by the TCA cycle, 15 ATP equivalents produced by the ETC, and 1 ATP equivalent produced by glycolysis. Depending on the specific electron transport chain utilised, the ETC can produce a different number of ATP molecules. Overall, there are numerous pathways and reactions involved in the breakdown of valine to CO2. The organism can use the significant amount of ATP that is ultimately produced by it for a variety of energy-dependent processes. Determine the energy yield in ATP equivalents when valine is completely converted to CO2 (under the assumption of an active electron transport chain). Only use compound names to describe the pertinent pathways in your justifications (but not the electron transport chain). Compound names can be replaced by structures.

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which statement regarding the third ventricle is true? a. the ventral wall is formed by the hypothalamus. b. it is midline. c. the pineal gland is posterior to it. d. the thalamus forms the lateral walls. e. all of the above

Answers

The statement regarding the third ventricle which is true is that it is midline.

The third ventricle is located in the center of the brain, within the diencephalon.

It connects with the fourth ventricle, which is located in the hindbrain, through the cerebral aqueduct.

The third ventricle contains cerebrospinal fluid, which is a clear liquid that circulates through the brain and spinal cord to provide nutrients and remove waste.

In summary, the statement regarding the third ventricle which is true is that it is midline.

This information is crucial in understanding the structure of the brain, the function of its various components, and how they all work together to regulate body processes.

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1. According to the map, what was the change in the length of Canada's ragweed pollen season from 1995 to 2015?

Answers

Answer:

six to 25 days

Explanation:

U.S. and Canadian researchers reported in 2016 that ragweed pollen seasons had grown longer, by six to 25 days, in 10 U.S. and Canadian locations between 1995-2015

Which type of gated channel remains open longer? To determine this, use the sliding tool on the membrane potential vs time chart and make note of when each gated channel opens and then closes. Pay special attention to the sodium gated channel, as it has a different mechanism for locking compared to potassium’s.

Answers

Compared to sodium and potassium channels, voltage-gated calcium channels tend to stay open longer. This is due to the slower inflow and outflow rates of calcium ions relative to sodium and potassium ions.

What kind of channels are open all the time and are not gated?

Ion channels that are non-gated are constantly open. These channels are also known as "leak" channels since they do not impose any resistance on the ions as they move through them.

What causes the ion channels involved in creating action potentials to open or close?

Several types of channels open and close in response to neurotransmitters, hormones, changes in membrane potential, mechanical pressures, and other agents. This results in the generation and modulation of electrical signals. Voltage-gated and ligand-gated ion channels are the two main kinds of ion channels.

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What would you need to add to your brain model in order to create a model of the central nervous system? To which brain area would you connect it?

Answers

Answer:

To create a model of the central nervous system, you would need to add the spinal cord to your brain model. The spinal cord is a long, thin, tubular bundle of nervous tissue that extends from the brainstem to the lower back and is responsible for transmitting signals between the brain and the rest of the body. By adding the spinal cord to your brain model, you would create a model of the central nervous system that includes both the brain and spinal cord, and their integration and regulation of the body's many functions.

You would connect the spinal cord to the brainstem in your model of the central nervous system. The brainstem is the lower part of the brain that is continuous with the spinal cord and is responsible for many vital functions, such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure, and is also involved in the transmission of sensory and motor signals between the brain and the body. By connecting the spinal cord to the brainstem in your model, you would establish the important link between the brain and the rest of the body.

Why sun is considred as ultimate source of energy

Answers

Answer:

The Sun is the Ultimate Source of Energy. Every morning the sun rises, bringing light and heat to the earth, and every evening it sets.

your welcome

this is worth 10 points pls help

Answers

A protein is made up of one or more polypeptide chains—chains of amino acids—whose structure is stored by a gene.

What is an amino acid?

Amino acids are organic substances with an organic side chain and the two functional groups amino (NH2) and carboxylic (COOH). To create a protein, twenty distinct amino acids are required. Polypeptides are sequences of amino acids that can be found in proteins. The polypeptide folds into a physiologically active form as a result of the amino acid chain arrangement.

Amino acids aid in the body's detoxification process.They support the production of growth hormones and proteins.They support the synthesis of glucose.They support slumber pattern regulation.Lack of amino acids can result in insomnia, melancholy, lack of appetite, edoema, headaches, and anaemia.

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The water-to-land transition occurred independently several times in the protostomes. Which of these is not an example of an adaptation for terrestrial living that may have arisen by convergent evolution? Eggs with a covering that minimizes water loss Decreased surface-to-volume ratios to increase the efficiency of gas exchange in air Internal respiratory structures Internal fertilization

Answers

"Decreased surface-to-volume ratios to increase the efficiency of gas exchange in air" is not an example of an adaptation for terrestrial living that may have arisen by convergent evolution.

Convergent evolution refers to the process by which different species independently evolve similar traits or adaptations in response to similar environmental pressures.

In the case of the water-to-land transition, some of the adaptations that arose through convergent evolution include eggs with a covering that minimizes water loss, internal respiratory structures, and internal fertilization. These adaptations allowed organisms to survive and reproduce on land without relying on water for these essential functions.

However, decreased surface-to-volume ratios are not an adaptation for terrestrial living.

In fact, increased surface-to-volume ratios are more beneficial for gas exchange in air, as they allow for more efficient diffusion of gases across the respiratory surface. Therefore, this is not an example of an adaptation that arose through convergent evolution during the water-to-land transition.

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Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following EXCEPT ________.

Select one:

a. Hair follicle receptors

b. Tactile discs

c. Lamellar corpuscles

d. Meissner's corpuscles

Answers

The answer is C. Lamellar corpuscles would likely not be involved in feeling a gentle caress on your arm.

Lamellar corpuscles, also known as Pacinian corpuscles, are sensory receptors that are located deep within the skin and respond to deep pressure and vibration. In contrast, a gentle caress on the arm would involve the activation of other types of sensory receptors, such as hair follicle receptors, tactile discs, and Meissner's corpuscles.

Hair follicle receptors are sensory receptors located at the base of hair follicles and respond to hair movements, such as when a gentle breeze moves the hairs on the skin. Tactile discs, also known as Merkel cells, are located in the upper layers of the skin and respond to pressure and texture. Meissner's corpuscles are also located in the upper layers of the skin and respond to light touch and changes in texture.

Therefore, a gentle caress on the arm would likely involve the activation of hair follicle receptors, tactile discs, and Meissner's corpuscles, but not lamellar corpuscles.

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John doesn’t think that skepticism should play an important role in the scientific process. He says that skepticism interferes with scientific consensus. Which statement best describes John’s conclusion?
It is incorrect because skepticism helps scientists recognize when ideas are not supported by evidence.
It is correct because skepticism prevents the acceptance of creative ideas and new discoveries.
It is correct because skepticism prevents scientists from testing new ideas and communicating with other scientists.
It is incorrect because skepticism leads to the acceptance of new ideas, which can eventually gain scientific consensus.

Answers

The answer would be A, the first one.

In the processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration, carbon is cycled between all major spheres on Earth. Plants obtain carbon dioxide from the atmosphere as one reactant to conduct photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide is produced by organisms as a result of carrying out cellular respiration. Which claim is correct about the cycling of matter and the flow of energy in the carbon cycle?

Answers

Carbon dioxide is produced by organisms as a result of carrying out cellular respiration is correct about the cycling of matter and the flow of energy in the carbon cycle.

Organic molecules are created from carbon dioxide or bicarbonate during photosynthesis in terrestrial plants, microorganisms, and algae. Via food chains, photosynthesizing organisms produce organic compounds that are then transformed back into carbon dioxide gas by cellular respiration.

While cellular respiration emits carbon dioxide into the environment, photosynthesis removes it from the atmosphere. carbon cycle. Worldwide, cellular respiration and photosynthesis exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen to maintain stable levels of atmospheric oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Cellular respiration is the process through which glucose is broken down, and it produces carbon dioxide as a byproduct. Humans return carbon to the carbon cycle through the exhalation of carbon dioxide. aThrough a process known as photosynthesis, plants are able to catch this carbon dioxide and utilise it to create carbohydrates.

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Iridium is an element that is rare on Earth but commonly found in meteorites. A scientist believes that the first organic molecules may have come to Earth on meteorites 3. 6 billion years ago. Which of these would be an appropriate null hypothesis to test related to whether meteorites hit the Earth 3. 6 billion years ago?


If sediment layers that are 3. 6 billion years old are tested, they will contain relatively high iridium levels, because that is when many meteorites crashed into the Earth.

A


There is no difference in iridium levels in sediments that were deposited on Earth 3. 6 billion years old, compared to recent sediments.

B


If a sediment layer that is 3. 6 billion years old is tested, it will contain organic material.

C


If recently fallen meteorites and meteoroids collected in space are tested, they will not contain organic molecules

Answers

The appropriate null hypothesis is:

There is no difference in iridium levels in sediments that were deposited on Earth 3. 6 billion years old, compared to recent sediments.

The correct option is A.

What is an appropriate null hypothesis?

The assertion that there is no correlation between any two groups of data or variables under investigation is known as a null hypothesis.

A would be the appropriate null hypothesis to test related to whether meteorites hit the Earth 3.6 billion years ago. It proposes that there is no difference in iridium levels in sediments that were deposited on Earth 3.6 billion years ago, compared to recent sediments. By testing this null hypothesis, scientists can determine whether the high iridium levels found in sediment layers of that age are due to a large influx of meteorites or some other factor.

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Explain atoms, molecules, cells, tissue, organs, organ systems and organisms. Relationships of living things

Answers

The relationships of living things are complex and interconnected. Atoms combine to form molecules, which combine to form cells, which work together to form tissues, organs, and organ systems.

Atoms are the smallest unit of matter that retain the properties of an element. They are the building blocks of everything in the universe and are composed of a nucleus containing positively charged protons and neutrally charged neutrons, surrounded by negatively charged electrons.

Molecules are formed when two or more atoms combine chemically through covalent, ionic or hydrogen bonding to form a stable unit. Molecules can be made up of the same type of atoms (such as O2) or different types of atoms (such as H2O).

Cells are the basic structural and functional unit of life. They are the smallest unit of life that can perform all the necessary functions, such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction. Cells are divided into two main types: prokaryotic and eukaryotic.

Tissues are a group of similar cells that work together to perform a specific function. For example, muscle tissue is composed of muscle cells that work together to allow movement.

Organs are made up of several different tissues that work together to perform a specific function. For example, the heart is an organ composed of muscle tissue, nervous tissue, and connective tissue that work together to pump blood throughout the body.

Organ systems are a group of organs that work together to perform a specific function. For example, the circulatory system is composed of the heart, blood vessels, and blood, and works to transport oxygen and nutrients throughout the body.

An organism is a living thing composed of one or more cells. Organisms can be unicellular, such as bacteria or amoeba, or multicellular, such as plants or animals. Organisms can also be classified into different kingdoms, such as animalia, plantae, fungi, protista, and monera.

Organisms are composed of many organ systems working together to maintain homeostasis and survive in their environment. Additionally, living things can interact with each other and their environment in complex ways, such as through predation, competition, symbiosis, and mutualism.

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How are the ethics of marine scientists similar to those of medical doctors?

A.
They are determined on a case-by-case or individual basis.

B.
They both prohibit doing experiments on live subjects.

C.
They are enforced by taking away professional licenses.

D.
They both require doing no harm through one’s work.

Answers

Answer:

Answer is d. They both require doing no harm through one's work.

different types of bushes are kept in a greenhouse to see which will produce the most flowers. The dependent variable in this experiment is. Explain

Answers

A variable that is measured during an experiment is known as a dependent variable. , the one that is the variable being controlled, determines its value, it is referred to as the "dependent" variable.

The dependent variable is which?

The variable that alters as a consequence of the modification of the variable is known as a dependent variable. The result that interests you is what you're measuring, and it "depends" on your variable. Statistical terms for dependent variables include: response parameters

What variables are dependent and independent, respectively?

Two different sorts of variables are typically used in analytical health research. We predict that independent variables will affect dependent variables. What transpires as a result of the variable is known as a dependent variable.

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A
the line on a distance-time graph indicates constant speed because it shows the exact change in
each second.

Answers

The statement is partially correct. A line on a distance-time graph does indicate constant speed, but it does not necessarily show the exact change in each second.

How an object moves with constant speed?

When an object moves with constant speed, its distance traveled is directly proportional to the time taken. This means that if we plot the distance traveled by the object on the vertical axis and the time taken on the horizontal axis, the resulting graph will be a straight line with a constant slope.

However, the slope of the line does not necessarily correspond to the exact change in distance per second. It simply indicates the constant speed of the object, which could be measured in any unit of distance per unit of time (e.g. meters per second, miles per hour, etc.).

For example, a line with a slope of 2 on a distance-time graph would indicate that the object is moving at a constant speed of 2 units of distance per unit of time. This could represent 2 meters per second, 2 miles per hour, or any other unit of distance and time.

So, while the line on a distance-time graph does indicate constant speed, it does not necessarily show the exact change in distance per second.

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On Earth the force of gravity is measured in Newtons, 1 kilogram of mass equal approximately 10 Newtons.

If an object had a mass of 5 kilograms, what would be the weight of the object measured on a spring scale in the unit of Newtons?

Answers

If an object had a mass of 5 kilograms, the weight of the object measured on a spring scale in the unit of Newtons is 50N.

The force that causes a mass of one kilogramme to accelerate by one metre per second per second is known as 1 kgm/s2. It bears Isaac Newton's name in honour of his contributions to classical mechanics, particularly Newton's second rule of motion.

we have 1 kg = 10 N

so 5 kg = 5 x 10 = 50 N.

The force exerted on an item by gravity is known as its weight.

Weight is sometimes described as a vector quantity, or the gravitational force exerted on the object, in certain common textbooks. Some people refer to weight as a scalar quantity that measures the gravitational force's strength. Others describe it as the strength of the force applied to a body by systems that work to counteract the effects of gravity. For example, a spring scale measures weight. As a result, the weight would be zero during free fall.

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Use the following table to answer the question This table shows the codons found in messenger RNA Using this information what sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA could code for the polypeptide sequence Phe-Ser-Gin

UUC-UCU-CAA
AAG-AGA-GTT
TTC-TCT-CAA
AAG-AGA-GUU

Answers

The correct response is 5'-CTTCGGGAA-3' since GAA-CGG-CTT codes to Phe-Pro-Lys. Given that the DNA template thread is always in reverse, the sequence GAA-CGG-CTT would be organised that manner.

The genome's protein-coding sequence is found in which section of DNA?

Genes and intergenic gaps make up the eukaryotic DNA. Exons and introns are additional divisions of genes. Exons are also known as protein-coding sections 1, 2, and 3 since they contain the protein-production code.

What is the coding strand of the DNA sequence?

The coding strand is the DNA helix with such a base sequence similar to its primary transcript (RNA). Whereas this strand has codons, the non-coding thread has anticodons. The coding strand serves as a model for creating the complementary strand.

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based on the different functions of t cells versus antibodies in the adaptive immune response, the fact that tcrs recognize components of both the mhc and the bound peptide exists to:

Answers

The fact that T cell receptors (TCRs) recognize components of both the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and the bound peptide exists to ensure that T cells only respond to foreign antigens and not to self-antigens.

Where are MHC molecules found?

MHC molecules are found on the surface of almost all cells in the body and they present small peptides derived from intracellular proteins to T cells.

A T cell must recognize both the MHC molecule and the peptide presented by that MHC molecule  in order for it to respond to an antigen,

The TCRs play a critical role in this recognition process.

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Scientists in a Central American country are studying factors that may be associated with delayed physical growth among a group of low-income children. The Study children live in a region of the nation that has high levels of lead in drinking water. This study is an example of alan) Multiple Choice uncontrollable epidemiological conversational prospective

Answers

The study described is an example of an observational epidemiological study.

Observational studies involve observing and collecting data on individuals without intervening or manipulating any variables. In this case, the scientists are observing and collecting data on a group of low-income children to investigate factors that may be associated with delayed physical growth. The study is also longitudinal in nature, meaning that data is collected over a period of time to track changes in the children's growth and health outcomes. The study is not experimental, as the scientists are not manipulating any variables and are simply observing the children in their natural environment.

An example of an observational epidemiological study is the one just outlined.

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Explain the stages of complete and incomplete metamorphosis, provide examples for each.

Answers

The stages of complete and incomplete metamorphosis are provided in the section below.

Stages of complete and incomplete metamorphosis

The transformation of an organism through its whole life cycle, including the various stages of egg, larva, pupa, and adulthood, is known as complete metamorphosis. Butterflies, moths, and beetles are some organisms that undergo complete metamorphosis.

Egg: The life cycle's first stage and the start of the full metamorphosis, respectively. The embryo of the creature is housed inside the egg, which is a tiny, often oval-shaped structure.
Larva: The embryo will mature into a larva, which is typically a worm-like creature when the egg hatches. In order to prepare for the forthcoming pupal stage, the organism will feed and expand during this stage. Maggots, grubs, and caterpillars are a few examples of larvae.
Pupa: The larva will change into its adult form during the pupal stage, which is a resting stage. The larva will be enclosed in a puparium at this stage as protection. Chrysalis, pupal cases, and cocoons are a few examples of pupa.
Adult: The organism's adult stage marks the end of its full metamorphosis.

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a reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen-antibody reaction is called a(n) . group of answer choices complement fixation precipitation reaction neutralization reaction agglutination reaction immunofluorescence

Answers

A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen-antibody reaction is called a complement fixation reaction.

Complement fixation is a diagnostic test that is commonly used to detect the presence of antibodies or antigens in a patient's serum. The test involves adding a known antigen to a patient's serum and then adding a source of complement, which is a group of proteins that are involved in the immune response. If the patient has antibodies to the antigen, the antibodies will bind to the antigen and activate the complement system. One of the consequences of complement activation is the lysis, or destruction, of red blood cells. Therefore, if there is no hemolysis of red blood cells, it indicates that there was no antigen-antibody reaction and the complement system was not activated.

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How is wind related to air pressure??
(in your own words)

Answers

Wind is related to air pressure because differences in air pressure create areas of high and low pressure that can cause air to move from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, resulting in wind.

In general, air moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure due to the pressure gradient force. The greater the difference in pressure between two points, the stronger the pressure gradient force and the faster the air will move. The direction of the wind is determined by the direction of the pressure gradient, with the air flowing perpendicular to the isobars (lines of equal pressure) from high pressure to low pressure.

The differences in air pressure that create wind are often caused by temperature differences in the atmosphere. For example, warm air rises and creates an area of low pressure, while cool air sinks and creates an area of high pressure. These pressure differences can be further amplified by other factors such as the rotation of the Earth, the presence of mountains or other topographical features, and the movement of weather systems.

In summary, wind is related to air pressure because differences in air pressure create a pressure gradient force that causes air to move from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, resulting in the movement of wind.

5

Drag each tile to the correct location,

Determine which physical conditions are necessary to support nuclear fusion and formation of stars.

lower temperature

higher temperature

increased gravitational attraction

decreased gravitational attraction

Promotes Stellar Formation

Does Not Promote Stellar Formation

Reset

Next

2020 Edmentum. All rights reserved.

Answers

Nuclear fusion is the process by which atomic nuclei combine to form heavier nuclei, releasing large amounts of energy in the process.

This process is what powers stars, including our sun. In order for nuclear fusion to occur and for stars to form, two physical conditions are necessary. The first is a higher temperature. At high temperatures, atomic nuclei have enough energy to overcome their natural repulsion and collide with enough force to fuse together. The second necessary condition is increased gravitational attraction. The force of gravity must be strong enough to pull together the gas and dust in a region of space, causing it to collapse into a dense core that is hot and dense enough to initiate nuclear fusion. Lower temperatures and decreased gravitational attraction do not promote stellar formation, as they do not provide the necessary conditions for nuclear fusion to occur.

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Bacteria and archaea together make up the most widespread group of
organisms on Earth, the
a. eukaryotes.
b. prokaryotes.
c. viruses.
d. pathogens.

Answers

The correct answer is b. prokaryotes.

Eukaryotic v.s. Prokaryotic

You can recall that there are two major different types of cells: eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus, and prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus.

Bacteria, such as the streptococcus bacteria (which causes infections like strep throat and rheumatic fever), do not have a nucleus. This sets them apart from other types of cells. For instance, white blood cells (WBCs) do have a nucleus, but red blood cells do not.

Since bacteria are prokaryotic (do not have a nucleus), we cannot categorize them as eukaryotic. This renders option A incorrect.

Bacteria v.s. Viruses

Bacteria and viruses are also contrasting. Bacteria cause infections like pneumonia and skin infections (such as cellulitis), but viruses are in charge of most upper respiratory infections (URIs), like the common cold or the Novel Coronavirus.

As such, bacteria cannot be categorized under the viruses category. This means that option C cannot be correct.

Are archaea pathogenic?

Pathogens are different biological microorganisms that can cause infections. Both viruses and bacteria fall under this category. However, archaea are not known to create any type of disease in humans and are therefore marked as non-pathogenic.

As such, bacteria and archaea cannot make up a group of pathogenic organisms, so this means that option D is also incorrect.

The final answer choice that is correct is b. prokaryotes.

For a substance to be a mineral, it must have at least one of these 5 characteristics​:

1. Naturally Ocurring

2. Solid

3. Forms by inorganic process

4. Crystal Structure

5. Definite Chemical Composition
True or false
Pls answer quick i have a test

Answers

True. For a substance to be considered a mineral, it must possess all five of the given characteristic i.e,  Naturally Ocurring, Solid, Forms by inorganic process Crystal Structure and Definite Chemical Composition.

Explain all these given 5 characteristics in detail?

Naturally Occurring: The substance must occur naturally and not be created or significantly altered by humans.Solid: The substance must be a solid at room temperature.Inorganic: The substance must be formed by geological processes and not be the result of a biological process.Crystalline Structure: The substance must have a regular and repeating atomic arrangement, also known as a crystalline structure.Definite Chemical Composition: The substance must have a specific chemical formula or range of chemical compositions.

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Explain why it is unusual for Calix to be a male calico cat.

Answers

Calico cats are typically female due to the genetics of their coat color. The gene responsible for the orange and black patches in calico cats is located on the X chromosome. Female cats have two X chromosomes, which means they can have two different versions of the gene. As a result, female cats can have both orange and black patches in their fur.

However, male cats only have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. This means they can only inherit one version of the gene responsible for calico coat color. In order for a male cat to be calico, he would need to have a rare genetic condition where he has an extra X chromosome (XXY), which is commonly known as Klinefelter syndrome. This condition is very rare in cats, which is why it's unusual for Calix to be a male calico cat.
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